Category: 10th class notes

  • 10th Class Chemistry Chapter 15: Water

    10th Class Chapter 15: Water Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 10th Class  Chemistry Chapter 15 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 10th Class Chemistry Chapter 15 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Chemistry Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q1. Why water is considered to be universal solvent?

    Ans: Water is the universal solvent because it can dissolve almost all the minerals. Its ability to dissolve substances is because of two unique properties of water, which are: i. Polarity of water molecule. ii. Exceptional hydrogen bonding ability.

    Q2. Write occurrence of water?

    Ans: The oceans contain about 97% Of World water. The rest of the water is in the form of glaciers, ice caps, ground water and inland water (river, lakes, and steams), It is also present in atmosphere in the form of water vapours,

    Q3. Why sea water is unfit for drinking purpose?

    Ans: Sea water is unfit for drinking and agricultural purposes due to high percentage of dissolved salts. Only 20 2% of the total water on the Earth is potable, ac fit for drinking purposes

    Q4. What happen if you add lump of cesium to water?

    Ans: If you add a lump of cesium to water in a glass trough, the reaction is so vigorous that the trough will shatter into small pieces

    Q5. How fluorine is beneficial for life?

    Ans: In some parts of the world, the water supply commans small amounts of flaorine compounds. found that, in these areas, people did not suffer much from tooth decay. This It was is because compounds of fluorine proteet teeth from decay. This is why many tooth pastes contain fluorine compounds.

    Q6. How hard water hampers the cleanings action of soap?

    Ans: Soap is the sodium salt of fa long chain carbresylic acid (fatty acid) magnesium and calcurn Those ions react with the soap molecule of calcium and magnesium n salts salts of of faty acids called scum Hard water to form an comains salts of insoluble precipitate As a result, a lunge amount of soap is wasted in scum formatan Thes, shes the efficienty of sep

    Q7. What is meant by water pollution?

    Ans: Water pollution is a contamination of water bodies (e.g. lakes, rivers, oceans and ground water). Water pollution occurs when pollutants are discharged directly or indirectly into water bodies without adequate treatment to remove harmful compounds.

    Q8. What is the difference between soft and hard water?

    Ans: Soft water: Soft water is that produces good lather with soap. Hard water: Hard water is that which does not produce lather with soap.

    Q9. What are the types of hardness in water?

    Ans: There are two types of hardness of water iTemporary hardness is because of presence of bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium. ii. Permanent hardness is because of presence of sulphates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium

    Q10. How temporary hardness is removed by boiling method?

    Ans: Temporary hardness of water is easily removed by boiling water, on boiling calcium bicarbonate Ca(HCO) decomposes to produce insoluble calcium carbonate, which precipitates out of the solution.

    Q11. How temporary hardness is removed by Clark’s method?

    Ans: A chemical method to remove temporary hardness is by the addition of slaked lume Ca(OH).

    Q12. A calculated amount of lime water is added to temporary hard water.

    Ans: It is liver inflammation commonly caused by one of five virases called Hepatitis A, B, C, D and E. Hepatitis A and E can be transmitted by contaminated water.

    Q13. What is the importance of water in our daily life?

    Ans: Its importance is because of two reasons: it is an cresential and major component of each and every living coll. For example, Firstly, it is human body consists of about 701 water . Secondly, it provides an environment for animals, and plans that live in water. So, all living organens owe thor life because of water

    Q14. Write characteristics of pure water?

    Ans: Good quality water is colorless, colorless, odorless and tasteless, Hardness of water can be checked by washing Soft water produces lather with steer Pand water has least conductivuy

    Q15. What are the industrial effluents of water pollution?

    Ans: As Industrial effluents are one of the main causes of water pollution. It includes high toxic organic chemicals, inorganic salts, heavy metals, mineral acids, oil and greases, etc.

    Q16. What is meant by water borne diseases? How they are controlled?

    Ans: Waterborne diseases are those diseases that spread because of drinking polluted water. These diseases spread because of lack of proper sanitation managements. These diseases can be prevented by using safe water, properly disposing sewage and controlled use of toxic chemicals.

    Q17. What is the effect of detergents on scarcity of oxygen?

    Ans: Household water in the sewage from toilets, baths, kitchens, etc. consists of detergents used for cleaning purposes. Detergent being non-biodegradable causes rapid growth of aquatic plants. When these plants die and decay, they consume O present in the water. Thus, aquatic life is badly affected because of scarcity of O.

    Q18. Write a short note on agricultural effluents?

    Ans: Agricultural effluents consist of fertilizers and pesticides. These substances provide nitrate and phosphate ions for rapid growth of aquatic plants. When these plants die and decay, their decomposition process consumes O of water. Thus, depletion of O causes damage to the aquatic life

    Q19. What is meant by fluorosis?

    Ans: Fluorosis is a disease caused by the consumption of excess fluoride. Fluorosis can cause bones and teeth damage.

    Q20. Give composition of water molecule.

    Ans: Water is composed of two elements: Oxygen and Hydrogen. One atom of oxygen combines with two atoms of hydrogen to form one molecule of water.

    Q21. Write the role of hookworm in causing waterborne disease.

    Ans: Hookworm is a parasitic worm that infects the small intestine. Sevene cases can nemit in anemia and stunted growth in children. Hooloworm larvae enter the body through the skin, often via the feet. Spread annum I by poor sanitary condition, hookwortes infiect about one billion people worldwide per

    Q22. How Jaundice is caused?

    Ans: Jaundice is caused by an excess of bile pigments in the blood. Liver ceases to function and eyes turn yellow. Patient feels weakness and fatigue

    Q23. Flow typhoid is caused of?

    Ans: A dangerous bacterial discase often spread by costumenared water or by food prepared with contaminated water

    Q24. What is meant by water softening?

    Ans: The removal of Me” and Casons which are responsible for the hardness is called water softening

    Q25. What is Capillary action?

    Ans: Capillary action is the process by which water rises up from the roots of plants to leaves. This process is vital for survival of land plants.

    Q26. Point out two properties of water that makes it an excellent solvent.

    Ans: The ability of water to dissolve substances is because of two unique properties which are: Polarity of water molecule. ii. Exceptional hydrogen bonding ability.

    Q27. Why the water molecule is polar?

    Ans: Polar nature of Water: Water molecule has a polar structure i.e.; one end of the molecule is partially positive while the other end is partially negative because of electronegativity difference between oxygen and hydrogen atoms.

    Q28. Explain why non-polar gases are soluble in water?

    Ans: Water can even dissolve non-polar (un-ionizable) gases like oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen ete. through dipole-induced dipole forces.

    Q29. Which salts are responsible for hardness of water?

    Ans: Rain water dissolves many salts sal of divalent cations like M * g ^ – 2 C * a ^ 2 and anions like CT, S * O_{4} ^ 2 HCO, and C * O_{3} ^ 12 For example, gypsum (CaS*O_{4} * 0.2H_{2}*O) lime stone (C_{3}*C*O_{3}) These salts make the water hard.

    Q30. What is the principle of removing permanent harness of water?

    Ans: The permanent hardness can only be removed by using chemicals calcium (C * a ^ 12) and magnesium (M * g ^ 12) are removed as “Insoluble salts” by adding washing soda (N*a_{2}*C*O_{1}) or sodium zeolite.

    Q31. How addition of N*a_{2}*C*O_{3} removes permanent hardness of water?

    Ans: The addition of washing soda removes the calcium and magnesium ions as the insoluble calcium and magnesium carbonate respectively

    Q32. How sodium zeolite softens water?

    Ans: Sodium zeolite is a naturally occurring resin of sodium aluminum silicate NaAl(SiO₂): Which can also be prepared artificially. When water is passed through resin sodium ions of the resin are exchanged with the unwanted calcium and magnesium ions of the hard water

    Q33. What do you mean by boiler scales? How are they removed?

    Ans: Hard water is unfit for use in steam engines, boilers and turbines because insqluble calcium and magnesium salts are deposited inside. This hard-deposited layer of calcium and magnesium salts is called as boiler scale, they can be nemoved by washing the boilers with washing soda, slaked linse and sodium zeoline.

    Q34. What is an industrial waste?

    Ans: All the industrial units discharge their wastes (chemical and solid materials) either to open ground or to water channels this is called industrial waste or industrial effluent.

    Q35. How water used as a cleaning agent in industries cause pollution?

    Ans: Water used as cleaning agent in industries is directly discharged out. This water contains all kinds of toxic chemicals and detergents. When these effluents or used water enter lakes, streams, rivers or occans, they either get dissolved or float suspended in water. Even they get deposited on the bed. This results in pollution of water,

    Q36. Way use of detergents is increasing day by day?

    Ans: The use of detergents is increasing in houses and industries because detergents have strong cleaning action that of soap even in hard water. They can even work in acidic solution.

    Q37. How decaying plants consume oxygen?

    Ans: Decaying plants consume oxygen for the biodegradable.

    Q38. What is function of fertilizers?

    Ans: Fertilizers are used to make up the deficiency of nitrogen, phosphorous ete, of the soil because of intensive cultivation of crops in the recent years,

    Q39. How pesticides cause water pollution?

    Ans: Run-off from the agricultural land (where fertilizer and pesticides have been used) emers into ponds, streams or This water contains nitrate NO. and phosphate PO, salts. These rivers. substancus results ina rapid sunlight and air to reach the aquatic life When algae die and decompose, bacteria consume oxygen of the water for decomposition As a result, oxygen depletes in water. Aquatic animals feel suffocation and ultimately die duc to insufficient supply of oxygen. In this way, pesticides play their role in water pollution,

    Q40. Define water borne diseases.

    Ans: Diseases that Spread because of drinking pellused water or cating food prepared with pollated water are called water borne diseases.

    Q41. What is dysentery”

    Ans: Dysentery is an intestinal disazase which is typically caused by certain bacteria or parasites, is characterized by severe dearhea that mury be accompanied by blood de mucoust

    Q42. Which of the bacteria causes the cholera

    Ans: Bactona vibrio cholera causes cholera

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  • 10th Class biology  Chapter 18: Pharmacology

    10th Class Chapter 18: Pharmacology Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 18 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 18 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q.1 Define pharmacology and distinguish it from pharmacy?
    Ans.
     Pharmacology
    It is the study of drug composition, properties and medical applications. Sources of drugs are also studied in pharmacology.
    Pharmacy
    While pharmacy is the study of preparation of medicines and drugs. Pharmacology is not synonymous with pharmacy.


    Q.2 Differentiate between medicinal drug and addictive drug.
    Ans.
     Medicinal drug
    It is defined as any chemical substance used in the diagnosis, cure, treatment or prevention of diseases.
    Addictive drug
    Some drugs often make person dependent on them or addicted. The person’s body becomes familiar to it and user cannot function well without it, these are called addictive drugs.


    Q.3 Differentiate between analgesic and antibiotic?
    Ans.
     Analgesic (pain killers) reduces pains e.g. paracetamol etc.
    Antibiotic
    Antibiotic are chemicals which inhibits or kills bacteria and treat bacterial infection e.g.
    tetracycline etc.


    Q.4 What is marijuana? To which category of addictive drugs it belongs?
    Ans.
     Marijuana is a hallucinogen which is smoked. It is obtained from flowers, stems, leaves of the
    marijuana plant. It belongs to the category of hallucinogens which result in a feeling of well being
    that lasts two to three hours.


    Q.5 Differentiate between narcotics and hallucinogens?
    Ans.
     Narcotics
    Narcotics are strong painkillers. These drugs are often prescribed in conjunction with other less potent painkillers. These are used to relieve pain, but some people may abuse narcotics for ecstatic effects.
    Hallucinogens
    Hallucinogens are the drugs that cause changes in perception, thought, emotion and consciousness.


    Q.6. What is Aspirin?
    Ans.
     A pain killer medicine, synthesized in Laboratory having the composition as Acetaminophen.


    Q.7 What do you know about bactericidal and bacteriostatic?
    Ans.
     The antibiotics that they kill bacteria e.g. cephalosporins are called bactericidal.
    Bacteriostatic
    The antibiotics that they work by stopping bacterial growth e.g. sulphonamides.


    Q.8 What is cardiotonic?
    Ans.
     Medicines for giving strength to heart muscles is called cardiotonics.


    Q.9 Define the term cephalosporin?
    Ans.
     A group of antibiotics, interfere with synthesis of bacterial cell wall and so are bactericidal. It is used to treat pneumonia, sorethroat, tonsillitis, bronchitis etc.


    Q.10 What is heroin?
    Ans.
     A commonly abused narcotic, derived from morphine, affects the central nervous system and causes drowsiness, hypertension etc.


    Q.11 What is Morphine?
    Ans.
     A commonly used narcotic, derived from the juice of opium, acts directly on the CNS to relieve pain, has a high potential for addiction.


    Q.12 What are sedatives?
    Ans.
     The types of drugs that interact with the central nervous system to depress its activities, make a person calm or drowsy e.g. diazepam.


    Q.13 What do you know about sulfonamide and tetracycline?
    Ans. 
    Sulfonamide
    Sulpha drugs are synthetic anti-biotics that contain sulfonamide group. They are broad spectrum bacteriostatic antibiotics. They inhibit the folic acid synthesis in bacteria and used to treat pneumonia and urinary tract infections.
    Tetracycline
    Broad spectrum bacteriostatic inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. It is used in the treatment of infections of respiratory tract, urinary tract, intestine etc.


    Q.14 What is vaccine?
    Ans
    . The material used to produce immunity to a disease by stimulating the production of antibodies.


    Q.15 Define the term disinfactants?
    Ans.
     Disinfactants destroy microorganism found on non-living objects.


    Q.16 What is tincture of iodine?
    Ans.
     The mineral iodine is used in making tincture of iodine, a liquid that helps to prevent infection when applied to cuts and bruises.


    Q.17 Make a difference between broad spectrum and narrow spectrum antibiotics?
    Ans. 
    Broad Spectrum Antibiotics
    Some antibiotics can be used to treat a wide range of infections and are known as broad spectrum
    antibiotics.
    Narrow Spectrum Antibiotics
    Antibiotics used against a few types of bacteria are called narrow spectrum antibiotics.


    Q.18 What is role of antibodies?
    Ans. 
    When pathogens enter the body (blood) of host, these proteins stimulate an immune response
    in host i.e. synthesis of “antibodies”. Antibodies bind to pathogens and destroy them. In addition, “memory cells” are produced, which remain in blood and provide protection against future infections with the same pathogens.


    Q.19 Define antibiotics.
    Ans.
     An antibiotics is a drug that kills or retards the growth (reproduction) of bacteria. They are the chemicals produced by or derived from microorganisms (bacteria and fungi).


    Q.20 Name two drugs obtained from animals.
    Ans.
     Fish liver oils, musk, bee’s wax, certain hormones and antitoxins are obtained from animal sources.


    Q.21. What are the functions of antibiotics?
    OR Define drug. Name one synthetic drug.
    Ans.
     Antibiotics are used to treat many different bacterial infections. Some antibiotics are bactericidal meaning that they kill bacteria. Others are ‘bacteriostatic meaning that they work by stopping bacterial growth.


    Q.22. What is meant by drug?” Give one example.
    Ans.
     Any substance that, when absorbed into the body of a living organism, alters normal body function is known as a drug e.g. Aspirin, is an example of synthetic drug.


    Q.23. Write the name of two drugs which are obtained from minerals.
    Ans.
     (i) Tincture of Iodine
    (ii) Silver Nitrate


    Q.24. Which antibiotic is obtained from soil?
    Ans
    . Terramycine is obtained from the soil which is used to treat many infections.


    Q.25. Differentiate between antiseptic and antibiotics.
    Ans. 
    Antiseptic reduces the possibility of infection on skin while antibiotics inhibit or kill bacteria within or on the body.


    Q.26. Write the contributions of Sir Alexander Fleming in the field of pharmacology.
    Ans. 
    Sir Alexander Fleming discovered the antibiotic penicillin from the füngus Penicillium notatum for which he was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1945.


    Q.27. Write the important contributions of Joseph Lister in the field of surgery.
    Ans.
     Joseph Lister was an English surgeon. He promoted the idea of sterile surgery for the first time. He introduced carbolic acid to sterilize surgical instruments and to clean wounds.


    Q:28 Is vaccines provide life time immunity?
    Ans.
     Some vaccines do not provide life time immunity. For example Tetanus vaccines are only effective for a limited period of time. In such cases, booster shots are necessary to maintain.
    continuous protection.


    Q.29 Write two functions of B.Lymphocytes.
    Ans.
     B.Lymphocytes recognize the weakened or dead pathogens as enemies and start producing antibodies against them. These antibodies remain in blood and provide protection against pathogens. If real pathogens enter blood, the already present antibodies kill them.

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    MCQs

    1.Antibiotics are used for the;
    (a) Treatment of viral infections
    (b) Treatment of bacterial infections
    (c) Immunization against infections
    (d) Both a and b


    2.The substances used for the treatment, cure, prevention or diagnosis of disease are called;
    (a) Medicinal drugs
    (b) Narcotics
    (c) Hallucinogens
    (d) Sedatives


    3.Aspirin is categorized as:
    (a) A drug from animals
    (b) A synthetic drug
    (c) A drug from plants
    (d) A drug from minerals


    4.The drugs used to reduce pain are known as;
    (a) Analgesics
    (b) Antiseptics
    (c) Antibiotics
    (d) Sedatives


    5.Which of the following drugs is obtained from plants?
    (a) Aspirin
    (b) Opium
    (c) Cephalosporin
    (d) Insulin


    6.Which of these addictive drugs are also used as painkillers?
    (a) Narcotics
    (b) Sedatives
    (c) Hallucinogens
    (d) All can be used


    7.Sulfonamides affect bacteria in the following way:
    (a) Break the cell wall
    (b) Inhibit protein synthesis
    (c) Stop the synthesis of new cell wall
    (d) Stop the synthesis of folic acid


    8.What is true about vaccines?
    (a) Protect against the future viral and bacterial infections
    (b) Treat the existing bacterial infections only
    (c) Treat existing infections and also protect against future infections
    (d) Protect against viral infections only


    9.Until 1890, the subject pharmacology was known as:
    (a) Clinical pharmacology
    (b) Materia Medica
    (c) Pharmacy
    (d) All of these


    10.A cardiotonic digitalis is obtained from a plant:
    (a) Poppy
    (b) Fungi
    (c) Cannabis
    (d) Foxglove


    11.The role of antiseptics is:
    (a) Destroy microorganisms
    (b) Kill bacteria
    (c) Inhibit bacteria
    (d) Reduce possibility of infections


    12.Who introduced the idea of sterile surgery for first time?
    (a) Alexander Fleming
    (b) Joseph Lister
    (c) Pasteur
    (d) Aristotle


    13.When Sir Alexander Fleming was awarded Nobel prize on the discovery of penicillin?
    (a) 1881
    (b) 1955
    (c) 1945
    (d) 1912


    14.Expired drugs can cause damage to:
    (a) Heart
    (b) Brain
    (c) Kidneys
    (d) Stomach


    15.The most prescribed medications in modern medicine are:
    (a) Antibiotics
    (b) Sedatives
    (c) Cardiotonics
    (d) Hallucinogens

    16.A medicine for lowering blood pressure, which has sulfonamide group is:
    (a) Aspirin
    (b) Penicillin
    (c) Thiazide diuretics
    (d) Teramycine


    17.Edward Jenner introduced the world’s first:
    (a) Vaccination
    (b) Antigen
    (c) Antibiotics
    (d) Addictive drugs


    18.In case of tetanus vaccination which is for limited time, are used for continuous protection.
    (a) B-Lymphocytes
    (b) Booster shots
    (c) Antibiotics
    (d) None of these

    19.The methods of administering vaccines is/are;
    (a) Injection
    (b) Mouth
    (c) Nasal spray
    (d) All of these


    20.When the antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, then it is called;

    (a) Efficiency
    (b) Efficacy
    (c) Inefficiency
    (d) resistance


    21.The medicine reduces the pain;
    (a) Aspirin
    (b) Quinine
    (c) Chloroquine
    (d) Resochin


    22.This drug belongs to Hallucinogens;
    (a) Morphine
    (b) Codeine
    (c) Heroin
    (d) Mescaline


    23.Cardiotonic is used to stimulate the heart, it is made from the leaves of purple flowered plant called:
    (a) Rose
    (b) Jasmine
    (c) Hibiscus
    (d) Foxglove


    24.The powder form of is applied on wounds to stop bleeding and prevent infection:
    (a) Ammonium nitrate
    (b) Silver nitrate
    (c) Sodium phosphate
    (d) Sulphur


    25.Diazepam is included in:
    (a) Analgesics
    (b) Antibiotics
    (c) Sedatives
    (d) Vaccines


    26.Long term use of suicidal thoughts: drug induced
    (a) Analgesics
    (b) Vaccines
    (c) Antibiotics
    (d) Sedatives


    27.Mescaline comes from:
    (a) Mushroom
    (b) Poppy plant
    (c) Cactus
    (d) Sunflower


    28.The scientific name of marijuana plant is:
    (a) Rosa Indica
    (b) Brassica campestris
    (c) Putrenzeva
    (d) Cannabis sativa


    29.is not used in children under the age of 8 and during the period of tooth development:
    (a) Cephalosporins
    (b) Tetracyclines
    (c) Sulpha Drugs
    (d)Thiazide Diuretics


    30.In which year a British physician Edward Jenner infected a young boy with cowpox by injecting pus cells:
    (a) 1786
    (b) 1696
    (c) 1756
    (d) 1796


    31.Drugs obtained from animals are usually their products.

    (a) Catabolic
    (b) Anabolic
    (c) Waste
    (d) Glandular


    32.recognize the weakened or dead pathogens as enemies and start producing antibodies against them.
    (a) Antigens
    (b) Lymphocytes
    (c) Vaccines
    (d) None


    33.destroy microorganisms found on non-living objects.
    (a) Sedatives
    (b) Antibiotics
    (c) Disinfectants
    (d) Antiseptics


    34.Pathogens contain special proteins called:
    (a) Lymphocytes
    (b) Antigens
    (c) Antibiotics
    (d) Antibodies


    35.Which of following is/are broad spectrum antibiotics?
    (a) Tetracyclines
    (b) Sulfonamides
    (c) Cephalosporins
    (d) Tetracyclines and Sulfonamides


    36.Which of following drug is derived from a mushroom?
    (a) Marijuana
    (b) Mescaline
    (c) Morphine
    (d) Psilocin


    37.Antibiotics are derived from microorganisms:
    (a) Bacteria
    (b) Fungi
    (c) Bacteria and Fungi
    (d) Viruses


    38.Bacteriostatics are antibiotics:

    (a) Kill bacteria
    (b) Stop bacterial growth
    (c) Enhance bacterial growth
    (d) Lessen bacterial growth


    39.Which of following is not an antibiotic?
    (a) Penicillin
    (b) Tetracycline
    (c) Thiazide diuretics
    (d) Sulfa drugs


    40.Penicillin is derived from fungus
    (a) Penicillium candidum
    (b) Penicillium expansum
    (c) Penicillium notatum
    (d) Penicillium chrysogenum


    41.Example of non-prescription drug is:
    (a) Aspirin
    (b) Antibiotics
    (c) Barbiturates
    (d) Tranquillizers


    42.Which of following is/are an example of prescription drug:
    (a) Barbiturates and Aspirin
    (b) Tranquillizers
    (c) Aspirin
    (d) Barbiturates and Tranquillizers


    43.Which of following is an example of synthetic drug?
    (a) Digitalis
    (b) Penicillin
    (c) Aspirin
    (d) Streptomycin


    44.Which of following affects production of sperms in men?
    (a) Codeine
    (b) Morphine
    (c) Marijuana
    (d) Mescaline


    45.Paracetamol is a/an:
    (a) Analgesics
    (b) Antibiotics
    (c) Sedatives
    (d) Vaccines


    46.Small doses of result in feeling of well-being that lasts two to three hours.
    (a) Mescaline
    (b) Marijuana
    (c) Heroin
    (d) Morphine


    47.Which of following are used to relieve pain for patients with chronic diseases such as cancer.
    (a) Sedatives
    (b) Narcotics
    (c) Hallucinogens
    (d) Mescaline


    48.Antibiotics used to treat a few types of bacteria are called antibiotics.
    (a) Broad Spectrum
    (b) Narrow Spectrum
    (c) Large Range spectrum
    (d) Narrow and Broad Spectrum


    49.Sir Alexander Fleming is biologist.
    (a) Italian
    (b) English
    (c) Scottish
    (d) Swedish


    50.Early Pharmacologist focused on:
    (a) Synthetic chemical extract
    (b) Microbial Extracts
    (c) Plant Extracts
    (d) Animal Extracts


    51.Which cells in body provide protection against future infections?
    (a) Red Blood cells
    (b) Thrombocytes
    (c) Memory cells
    (d) Platelets


    52.Drugs which make a person dependent on them are:
    (a) Antibiotics
    (b) Addictive
    (c) Clinical
    (d) Non prescription


    53.Aspirin is a a/an;
    (a) Prescription
    (b) Non prescription
    (c) Synthetic drug
    (d) Synthetic & Non-Prescription drug


    54.Medicines which are used to stimulate heart rate are called:
    (a) Antibiotics
    (b) Cardiotonics
    (c) Analgesics
    (d) Pain killer


    55.A Cardiotonic is:
    (a) Penicillin
    (b) Aspirin
    (c) Digitalis
    (d) Opium


    56.Penicillin is obtained from:
    (a) Plants
    (c) Animals
    (b) Fungus
    (d) Bacteria


    57.From the leaves of foxglove, which is obtained?
    (a) Opium
    (b) Tincture of iodine
    (c) Antitoxin
    (d) Digitalis


    58.The example of a pain reliever is;
    (a) Silver nitrate
    (b) Morphine
    (c) Marijuana
    (d) Mescaline


    59.An example of illegal addictive drug is:
    (a) Marijuana
    (b) Penicillin
    (c) Digitalis
    (d) Foxglove


    60.Drugs which animals are: are obtained from
    (a) Musk and Bees wax
    (b) Musk
    (c) Bees wax
    (d) Mush and tincture of Iodine


    61.Hallucinogen which is smoked is;
    (a) Datura
    (b) Marijuana
    (c) Psilocin
    (d) Mescaline


    62.Which inhibit or kill bacteria?
    (a) Aspirin
    (b) Tetracycline
    (c) Diazepam
    (d) Paracetamol


    63.Who discovered penicillin?
    (a) Fleming
    (b) Lister
    (c) Jenner
    (d) Louis Pasteur


    64.Which are aroused for ecstatic effects?
    (a) Sedatives
    (b) Hallucinogens
    (c) Narcotics
    (d) Marijuana


    65.Most commonly abused Narcotic is:
    (a) Morphine
    (b) Codeine
    (c) Caffeine
    (d) Heroin


    66.Which is derived from Cactus?
    (a) Psilocin
    (b) Diazepam
    (c) Mescaline
    (d) Morphine


    67.What affects sympathetic Nervous system?
    (a) Sedative
    (b) Hallucinogens
    (c) Narcotics
    (d) Analgesics


    68.High doses of increases heart rate?
    (a) Marijuana
    (b) Hashish
    (c) Marijuana & Hashish
    (d) Morphine


    69.Which interfere with synthesis of bacterial cell wall?
    (a) Cephalosporins
    (b) Tetracyclines
    (c) Tetracyclines & Cephalosporins
    (d) Sulfonamide


    70.Which should not be used during period of tooth development?
    (a) Cephalosporins
    (b) Sulfonamides
    (c) Tetracyclines
    (d) Hallucinogens


    71.A medicine for lowering blood pressure is:
    (a) Cephalosporins
    (b) Sulpha drugs
    (c) Tetracyclines
    (d) Thiazide diuretics


    72.Who introduced Carbolic Acid?

    (a) Sir Alexander Fleming
    (b) Louis Pasteur
    (c) Joseph Lister
    (d) Edward Jenner


    73.The example of Sedative is:
    (a) Aspirin
    (b) Diazepam
    (c) Carbolic acid
    (d) Tetracycline


    74.The drugs that causes changes in perception, thought, emotion and consciousness are:
    (a) Narcotics
    (b) Sedatives
    (c) Hallucinogens
    (d) Morphine


    75.Morphine and Codeine are derived from:
    (a) Poppy
    (b) Foxglove
    (c) Sheesham
    (d) All of these


    76.Which one is prescribed as a strange Analgesic under the diamorphine in many Western countries:
    (a) Paracetamol
    (b) Aspirin
    (c) Heroin
    (d) Marijuana


    77.To which granp aspirin belong;
    (a) Obtained from animals
    (b) Obtained from plants
    (c) Synthetic
    (d) Obtained from bacteria


    78.Which of the following addictive drugs is obtained from opium?
    (a) Morphine
    (b) Marijuana
    (c) Mescaline
    (d) Psilocin

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    Class 10 Biology Chapter-18 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

    He purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible, no matter how hard we try. Either way, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions to improve the learning material. Our efforts are meant to benefit the entire community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends because “Sharing is Caring.”

  • 10th Class biology Chapter 17: Biotechnology

    10th Class Chapter 17: Biotechnology Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 17 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 17 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q.1 How would you define fermentation with reference to biotechnology?
    Ans: 
    Fermentation is the process in which there is incomplete oxidation reduction of glucose.


    Q.2 Name any two industrial products made by fermentation? Also describe their uses in the industry.
    Ans:
     Two industrial products are:
    (i) Formic acid
    It is used in textile dyeing, leather treatment, electroplating, rubber manufacture.
    (ii) Ethanol
    It is used as solvent and used in the production of vinegar and beverages.


    Q.3 What are the products of the two types of carbohydrate fermentation?
    Ans:
     In alcoholic fermentation, CO2 and ethanol are the products. In lactic acid fermentation, lactic acid is the product.


    Q.4 Give an example how biotechnology is helping for better environment?
    Ans:
     Bacterial enzymes are used to treat sewage water to purify.


    Q.5 In biotechnology, what is meant by genetically modified organism (GMO)? How is it made?
    Ans:
     In biotechnology, recombinant DNA is transferred to the target host. In this way, host organism is transformed into a genetically modified organism (GMO).


    Q.6 What is Batch fermentation?
    Ans:
     In this process, the tank of fermenter is filled with the raw materials to be fermented. The temperature and pH for microbial fermentation is properly adjusted and nutritive supplements are added. All the material is steam sterilized. The pure culture of microorganisms is added to fermenter from a separate vessel.


    Q.7 Define Biotechnology. (Board 2014)
    Ans:
     It is defined as the use of living organisms in processes for the manufacture of useful products or for services.


    Q.8 What is continuous fermentation?
    Ans:
     In this process, the substrate is added to fermenter continuously at a fixed rate. This maintains the micro-organisms in growth phase. Fermentation products are taken continually.


    Q.9 Define Fermentation.
    Ans:
     It is a process in which incomplete oxidation reduction of glucose takes place.


    Q.10 What is Fermenter?
    Ans:
     Fermenter is a device that provides optimum environment to microorganisms to grow into a biomass, so that they can interact with a substrate forming the product. Fermentation is carried out in fermenters.


    Q.11 What is Genetically modified organism GMO?
    Ans: 
    GMO is genetically modified organism. Recombinat DNA is transferred to the target host. In this way the host organism is transformed into genetically modified organism (GMO).


    Q.12 What is Recombinant DNA?
    Ans:
     The vector DNA and the attached gene of interest are collectively called recombinant DNA.


    Q.13 What is Restriction endonucleases?
    Ans:
     Special enzymes, called restriction endonucleases are used to cut the identified gene from the total DNA of donor organism.


    Q.14 What is Single cell protein?
    Ans:
     Single cell protein (SCP) refers to the protein content extracted from pure or mixed culture of algae, yeasts, fungi or bacteria.


    Q.15 What is Transgenic organism?
    Ans:
     Organism with modified genetic set up is known as transgenic organism.


    Q.16 Define vector?
    Ans:
     A vector is a carrier or transmitter which is selected for transfer of the isolated gene of interest to the host cell. The vector may be a plasmid or a bacteriophage.


    Q.17 What is Genetic donor?
    Ans:
     The organism from which the gene of interest is taken during the process of genetic engineering is called genetic donor.


    Q.18 Define Plasmid.
    Ans:
     The extra chromosomal DNA present in many bacteria is called plasmid.


    Q.19 What is Alcoholic fermentation?
    Ans: 
    This fermentation is carried out by many types of yeast such as saccharomyces cerevisiae. In this process, carbondioxide is removed from pyruvic acid. The product acetaldehyde is then reduced to ethanol. The CO2 production causes the rise of the bread. It is used to produce bread, beer, wine and distilled spirits.


    Q.20 What is Lactic acid fermentation?
    Ans:
     In this process, pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid. It is carried out by many bacteria. e.g. Streptococcus and many Lactobacillus species. It is quite important in dairy industry where it is used for souring milk and also for production of various types of cheese.


    Q.21 What is Beta-Endorphin?
    Ans:
     It is a pain killer produced by the brain, has also been produced by genetic engineering techniques.


    Q.22 What is thymosin?
    Ans: 
    It is a hormone which is effective against brain and lung cancer.


    Q.23 What is ligase?
    Ans:
     Ligase is an enzyme which is used to join the DNA.


    Q.24 Write any two objectives of genetic engineering?
    Ans.
     Production of particular RNA and Protein molecules.
    ii. Treatment of genetic defects in higher organisms.


    Q.25 Define genetic engineering
    Ans:
     Genetic engineering or recombinant DNA technology involves the artificial synthesis, modification, removal, addition and repair of the genetic material DNA.


    Q.26 Define Dolly
    Ans:
     In Scotland in 1997, an embryologist Ian Wilmut produced a sheep named Dolly from the body cell of an aduît sheep.


    Q.27 What are interferons?
    Ans:
     Interferons are anti-viral protein produced by cells infected with viruses.


    Q.28 What is urokinase?
    Ans: 
    Urokinase is an enzyme which is used to dissolve blood clots, has been produced by genetically modified microorganisms.


    Q.29 What is Human Genome Project?
    Ans: 
    Human Genome Project was launched to map all the genome in human cell. The complete map of human genome was published in 2002.


    Q.30 What is meant by single cell protein? How are these produced?
    Ans:
     Definition:
    Single-cell protein (SCP) refers to the protein content extracted from pure or mixed cultures of algae, yeasts, fungi or bacteria.
    Production of single Cell Protein
    For the production of single cell proteins, the microorganisms utilize a variety of substrates like agricultural wastes, industrial wastes, natural gas like methane etc.


    Q.31 What is meant by Recombinant DNA Technology? Give its one benefit.
    Ans:
     A technology in which a vector is selected for the transfer of the isolated gene of interest to the host cell. The vector may be a plasmid or a bacteriophage. The gene of interest is attached with the vector DNA by using endonuclease and ligase. The vector DNA and the attached gene of interest are collectively called recombinant DNA. This recombinant DNA is transferred to target host and host organism is transformed into a genetically modified organisms (GMO).


    Q.32 Name two basic types of Fermentation.
    Ans:
     1. Alcoholic fermentation (by yeast)
    2. Lactic acid fermentation (by bacteria)

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    MCQs

    1.Find the correct match for the fermentation product and the organism involved;
    (a) Formic acid – Saccharomyces
    (b) Ethanol-Saccharomyces
    (c) Ethanol-Aspergillus
    (d) Glycerol – Aspergillus


    2.Which is not an objective of genetic engineering?
    (a) Production of cheese and yogurt by lactic acid bacteria
    (b) Isolation of a particular gene, or part of a gene
    (c) Production of RNA and protein molecules.
    (d) Correction of genetic defects in higher organisms


    3.Which of these is an anti-viral protein?
    (a) Urokinase
    (b) Thymosin
    (c) Insulin
    (d) Interferon


    4.The first step in genetic engineering is:
    (a) Growth of the genetically modified organism
    (b) Transfer of the recombinant DNA into the host organism
    (c) Isolation of the gene of interest
    (d) Insertion of gene into a vector


    5.The work on genetic engineering started in:
    (a) 1944
    (b) 1955
    (c) 1945
    (d) 1943


    6.Scientists are able to cut and paste the DNA of organism in:
    (a) 1944
    (b) 1970
    (c) 1990
    (d) 2002


    7.Scientists prepared human insulin by inserting the insulin gene in bacteria in:
    (a) 1970
    (b) 1978
    (c) 1990
    (d) 2002


    8.Human genome: project was launched in:
    (a) 1990
    (b) 1970
    (c) 1978
    (d) 2002


    9.In alcoholic fermentation, which bacteria is used?
    (a) Saccharomyces
    (b) Lactobacillus
    (c) Streptococcus
    (d) Both B and C


    10.Which of these micro-organism is used in the production of formic acid?
    (a) Aspergillus
    (b) Bacillus
    (c) Saccharomyces
    (d) None


    11.Glycerol is produced by:
    (a) Aspergillus
    (b) Bacillus
    (c) Saccharomyces
    (d) Streptococcus


    12.Which one is used to dissolve blood clots?
    (a) Urokinase
    (b) Interferons
    (c) Thymosin
    (d) Vaccine


    13.The complete map of human genome was published in:
    (a) 2002
    (b) 1944
    (c) 1978
    (d) 1990


    14.50 kilogram of yeast produces how many tons of proteins within 24 hours.
    (a) 250
    (b) 150
    (c) 350
    (d) 450


    15.Interferon was produced by genetically modified microorganisms in;
    (a) 1980
    (b) 1944
    (c) 1990
    (d) 1970


    16.500,000 sheep brains were required to produce how much milligrams of human growth hormone?
    (a) 5
    (b) 10
    (c) 15
    (d) 20


    17.Which one is effective against brain and lung cancer?
    (a) Beta-endorphin
    (b) Vaccine
    (c) Thymosin.
    (d) Insulin


    18.Which one is not used for the production of plastics?
    (a) Bacillus
    (b) Aspergillus
    (c) Saccharomyces
    (d) none of these


    19.Alcoholic fermentation is carried out by; (Board 2013)
    (a) Yeast
    (b) Bacteria
    (c) Virus
    (d) Algae


    20.Enzyme used to cut the identified gene from the total DNA of donor organism is; (Board 2013)
    (a) Endonuclease
    (b) Ligase
    (c) Restriction Endonuclease
    (d) Amylase


    21.Vector transmits;
    (a) Bacterium
    (b) Parasite
    (c) Pathogen
    (d) Both B and C


    22.Which is an important application of Biotechnology?
    (a) Respiration
    (b) Decomposition
    (c) Digestion
    (d) Fermentation


    23.In glycolysis, glucose molecule is broken down into two molecules of:
    (a) Pyruvic acid
    (b) Lactic acid
    (c) Formic acid
    (d) Acrylic acid


    24.Who produced the Dolly sheep?
    (a) Louis Pasteur
    (b) Walther Flemming
    (c) Ian Wilmut
    (d) Mendel


    25.Who invented Pasteurization?
    (a) Louis pasteur
    (b) Walther Flemming
    (c) Carolus Linnaeus
    (d) Aristotle


    26.Who introduced the term “single cell Protein”?
    (a) Mendel
    (b) Loius Pasteur
    (c) Scrimshow
    (d) Ian Wilmut


    27.The use of living organisms in processes for the manufactures of useful products for services is called:
    (a) Genetic Engineering
    (b) Biotechnology
    (c) Vaccination
    (d) Maltation


    28.Streptococcus and Lactobacillus are:
    (a) Viruses
    (b) Fungi
    (c) Bacteria
    (d) Algae


    29.When Pasteur convinced the scientific community that all fermentations are the results of microbial activity?
    (a) 1957
    (b) 1857
    (c) 1900
    (d) 2010


    30.Which one is the commonest type of fermented cereal product?
    (a) Pickles
    (b) Bread
    (c) Jams
    (d) Powdered milk


    31.In the synthesis of bear, fermentation of fine powder of cereal grains is done by?
    (a) Yeast
    (b) Bacteria
    (c) Viruses
    (d) All of the above


    32.Which one is used in the production of Vinegar and Beverages?
    (a) Aspergillus
    (b) Bacillus
    (c) Saccharomyces
    (d) Lactobacillus


    33.The vector DNA and the attached gene of interest are collectively called:
    (a) GMO
    (b) Recombinant DNA
    (c) DNA
    (d) Endonucleases


    34.Wheat dough is fermented by:
    (a) Yeast
    (b) S.cerevisiae
    (c) Lactobacillus
    (d) Streptococcus


    35.Organisms with modified genetic set up are called:
    (a) Dolly
    (b) Transgenic organisms
    (c) Breed
    (d) Vector


    36.The process in which glucose molecule is broken into two molecules of pyruvic acid is called:
    (a) Fermentation
    (b) Genetic Engineering
    (c) Glycolysis
    (d) Biotechnology


    37.Which one is used as a Sweetener?
    (a) Formic acid
    (b) Ethanol
    (c) Glycerol
    (d) All of these


    38.DNA carries genetic information, it was proved in?
    (a) 1970’s
    (b) 1944
    (c) 1978
    (d) 2000


    39.When was DNA prepared outside the cells?
    (a) 1944
    (b) 1953
    (c) 1970’s
    (d) 1990


    40.Scientists were able to cut and paste the DNA of organisms in;
    (a) 1953
    (b) 1970’s
    (c) 1944
    (d) 1990


    41.Human Genome project was
    (a) 1970
    (b) 1990
    (c) 1991
    (d) 2000


    42.Complete human genome map was published in?
    (a) 1976
    (b) 2004
    (c) 2002
    (d) 2012


    43.Malted food is/are;
    (a) Powdered milk
    (b) Mixture of barely
    (c) Whole milk
    (d) All of these


    44.Fermented food is/are;
    (a) Pickles
    (b) Yogurt
    (c) Both A and B
    (d) Wheat flour


    45.Which is used for souring milk and for production of various types of cheese?
    (a) Lactobacillus
    (b) Streptococcus
    (c) Both lactobacillus and streptococcus
    (d) Saccharomyces


    46.Fermentation makes the food more?
    (a) More Digestible
    (b) Less Nutritious
    (c) Tasteless
    (d) Less digestible


    47.Grapes can directly be fermented by yeasts to:
    (a) Formic acid
    (b) Wine
    (c) Pyruvic acid
    (d) Ethanol


    48.Which product electroplating? is used in
    (a) Formic acid
    (b) Ethanol
    (c) Glycerol
    (d) Acrylic acid


    49.Which maintains the microorganisms in growth phase?
    (a) Fermenter
    (b) Continuous fermenter
    (c) Batch fermenter
    (d) All of these


    50.A joining enzyme is;
    (a) Thymosin
    (b) Endonuclease
    (c) Ligase
    (d) Urokinase


    51.A breaking enzyme is;
    (a) Recombinant DNA
    (b) Ligase
    (c) Urokinase
    (d) Endonuclease


    52.SCP has good prospects for future because it contains all important;
    (a) Nutrients
    (b) Amino acids
    (c) Lipids
    (d) Fats


    53.It is a catabolic process:
    (a) Photosynthesis
    (b) Fermentation
    (c) Fragmentation.
    (d) None of these


    54.To preserve fruits, vegetables and pickles we add;
    (a) Water and yogurt
    (b) Salt and acid
    (c) Flour and salt
    (d) Onion and garlic


    55.An enzyme produced by genetically modified organisms used to break up blood clots is called;
    (a) Lipase
    (b) Amylase
    (c) Urokinase
    (d) Peptidase

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    Class 10 Biology Chapter-17 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

    He purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible, no matter how hard we try. Either way, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions to improve the learning material. Our efforts are meant to benefit the entire community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends because “Sharing is Caring.”

  • 10th Class biology  Chapter 16: Man and His Environment

    10th Class Chapter 16: Man and His Environment Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 16 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 16 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q.1 What are the different levels of ecological organization?
    Ans.
     The different levels of ecological organization are:
    (i) species
    (ii) population (iii) community (iv) ecosystem (v) biosphere


    Q.2 Define ecosystem and its components.
    Ans.
    The self-sufficient unit of an environment that is formed as a result of interactions between its communities and the abiotic components is called ecosystem.


    Q.3 How flow of energy is different from that of materials?
    Ans.
     The flow of energy in different trophic levels of ecosystem is unidirectional while the flow of materials is two directional. It flows from one trophic level to another by means of food chains and food web.


    Q.4 Define food chain. Give one example (Board 2014)
    Ans: 
    A food chain is a series of organisms within an ecosystem, in which each organism feeds on the one before it and is fed by one after it.
    Example
    Grass Grasshopper Sparrow → Hawk


    Q.5 Define food web.
    Ans:
     In nature, food chains are very complex, as an organism may be the food source of many other.
    organisms. So there is a web like structure formed by these interlinked food chains. Such
    interconnected food chains collectively make food web. OR It may also be defined as, “a network of food chains which are interconnected at various trophic levels”.


    Q.6 What do you mean by the concept of 3Rs with reference to the conservation of natural
    resources?
    Ans:
     It means Reduce, Reuse and Recycle the materials. Many materials such as paper, plastic, glass etc can be recycled. This decreases the volume of refuse and helps in the conservation of natural
    resources.


    Q.7 Define Acid rains.
    Ans: 
    Certain chemicals such as oxides of sulphur and nitrogen when react with water vapours in the presence of sunlight to form sulphuric acid and nitric acid. These acids remain as vapours at high temperatures. As temperature falls, the acids begin to condense into liquid form and mix with rain or snow, on the way down to the earth. This makes rain acidic with pH range of 3-6.


    Q.8 What is ammonification?
    Ans: 
    Ammonification is the breakdown of the proteins of dead organisms and nitrogenous wastes (urea, uric acid etc.) to ammonia. It is done by ammonifying bacteria.


    Q.9 What is atmospheric nitrogen fixation?
    Ans:
     Thunderstorms and lightning convert atmospheric gaseous nitrogen into nitrous acid and nitric acid. The acids in turn combine with other salts to produce ‘nitrates’ this is called atmospheric nitrogen fixation.


    Q.10 What are biogeochemical cycles.
    Ans: 
    Biogeochemical cycles are the cyclic pathways through which materials move from environment to organisms and back to the environment. e.g. carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle etc.


    Q.11 What is biological nitrogen fixation?
    Ans:
     Some bacteria also have the ability to transform gaseous nitrogen into nitrates. It is called biological nitrogen fixation. Some of these nitrogen fixing bacteria live as symbionts and many are free living.


    Q.12 Define Biosphere.
    Ans:
     All ecosystems of the world together form the biosphere. It includes all the ecosystems of the earth. In other words, the biosphere consists of all organisms present on the earth and all regions of the earth where they live. Biosphere ranges from the floor of oceans to the top of the highest mountains. It is about 20 km thick.


    Q.13 What is carbon cycle?
    Ans: 
    The biogeochemical cycle in which carbon flows between organisms and the environment is called carbon cycle.


    Q.14 What are carnivores? Write the types of carnivores.
    Ans: 
    Those animals that feed upon other animals are called carnivores.
    Types of carnivores
    a) Primary carnivores
    Those carnivores that feed upon herbivores are called primary carnivores.
    Examples
    Fox, frog, predatory birds, many fishes and snakes.
    b) Secondary carnivores
    Those carnivores that feed upon primary carnivores are called secondary carnivores.
    Examples
    Wolf and owl etc.
    c) Tertiary carnivores
    Those carnivores that feed upon secondary carnivores are called tertiary carnivores. They are not eaten by any other animals. So they are also called top carnivores.
    Examples
    Lion, Tiger etc.


    Q.15 Define commensalism with examples.
    Ans:
     It is a type of symbiosis in which one partner is benefited while the other is neither benefited nor harmed.
    Example
    Epiphytes are small plants found growing on other larger plants for space only. They absorb water and minerals from the atmosphere and prepare their own food. The larger plants are neither benefited nor harmed in any way.


    Q.16 What are consumers?
    Ans: 
    These are the heterotrophs in an ecosystem. These organisms are unable to synthesize their food and so depend upon producers for food. The animals are the major consumers of all the ecosystems.
    Examples
    Animals, Fungi, Protozoans and many of the Bacteria.


    Q.17 What are decomposers?
    Ans:
     Those organisms that break down the complex organic compounds of dead matter (of plants and animals) into simple compounds. They secrete digestive enzymes into dead and decaying organic matter to digest the organic material. Products of digestion are absorbed for their own use and remaining substances are added to the environment for reuse.
    Examples
    Bacteria and fungi


    Q.18 Define Deforestation and describe its causes.
    Ans: 
    Deforestation means clearing of forests by natural causes or humans. Causes of deforestation m
    Large areas of forests have been cleaned for agriculture, factories, roads, rail tracks and mining.
    Humans cut trees for getting wood (Timber), which is then used for making structures and for
    heat production.
    Human preys upon forest animals, which are the predators of many insect pests. In this way insect pests destroy forests by eating the shoots and spreading diseases.
    Effects of deforestation
    Floods
    Droughts
    Landslides
    Soil erosions
    Global warming
    Loss of habitat of many species


    Q.19 What is meant by denitrification?
    Ans:
     It is a biological process in which nitrites and nitrates are reduced to gaseous nitrogen by denitrifying bacteria. In this way, nitrogen is returned to the atmosphere.


    Q.20 What is ecological pyramid?
    Ans:
     Ecological pyramid can be defined as, “A representation of the number of individuals or amount of biomass or energy present in various trophic levels of a food chain”.


    Q.21 Define environment.
    Ans:
     An organism’s environment is the sum of physical (abiotic) and biological (biotic) conditions which influence that organism.


    Q.22 What is eutrophication?
    Ans:
     Enrichment of water with inorganic nutrients (nitrates and phosphates) is called eutrophication.


    Q.23 What is Global Warming and describe its effects.
    Ans:
     The addition of greenhouse gases (e.g. carbon dioxide, methane, ozone) in atmosphere increases the temperature of the earth. Gases in the atmosphere do not allow solar radiations to reflect back into space. As a result, heat remains within the earth’s atmosphere and increases its temperature. This is called global warming.
    Effect of global warming
    Due to global warming, polar ice-caps and glaciers are melting faster than the time taken for new ice layers to form. Sea water is also expanding causes sea level to rise due to melting glaciers, rivers overflow and cause floods.


    Q.24 Define mutualism.
    Ans:
     The type of symbiosis in which both partner get benefit from each other and neither is harmed. Example
    Termites eat wood but are unable to digest it. A protozoan lives in its intestine. It secretes. ‘cellulase’ enzyme to digest the cellulose of wood. In turn, the termite provides food and shelter to the protozoan.


    Q.25 What are natural resources?
    Ans:
     Every thing we use e.g. food, petrol etc. is obtained from natural resources. They are of two
    types. (i) Renewable
    (ii) Non-renewable


    Q.26 What is nitrification?
    Ans: 
    After the formation of ammonia, it is converted into nitrites and nitrates. This is called nitrification and is done by nitrifying bacteria.


    Q.27 What is nitrogen cycle?
    Ans:
     The flow of nitrogen between environment and the organisms is called nitrogen cycle.


    Q.28 What is nitrogen fixation?
    Ans:
     Conversion of nitrogen gas into nitrates is called nitrogen fixation.


    Q.29 What are non-renewable resources and renewable resources?
    Ans: 
    The renewable natural resources e.g. air are reproduced easily but the non-renewable resources (e.g. minerals and fossils fuels) are not replenished once they get depleted.


    Q.30 What is overpopulation?
    Ans:
     Increase in population beyond the carrying capacity of an area


    Q.31 Define phytoplankton?
    Ans:
     Photosynthetic organisms that float on the surface of water, are called phytoplankton.


    Q.32 Define Pollution and pollutants.
    Ans:
     Pollution is defined as any undesirable change in the physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air, water and land that may harmful for humans, other living organisms and natural resources. The substances that actually cause pollution are called pollutants.


    Q.33 Define parasitism.
    Ans:
     It is a type of symbiosis in which smaller partner (parasite) derives food and shelter from the body of larger partner (host) and, in turn, harms it.


    Q.34 What is predation?
    Ans: 
    An interaction between animals of two species or a plant and an animal, in which the predator attacks, kills and feeds on the smaller animal called prey.


    Q.35 What are producers?
    Ans:
     These are the autotrophs in an ecosystem. These organisms are able to synthesize complex organic compounds (food) from inorganic raw materials. Producers form the basis of any ecosystem.
    Examples Plants, Algae and Cyanobacteria


    Q.36 Define pyramid of biomass.
    Ans:
     It is a graphic representation of biomass present per unit area at various trophic levels of a food chain.
    Example
    In a terrestrial ecosystem, the maximum biomass is of producers and decomposers have lesser biomass.


    Q.37 Define pyramid of numbers.
    Ans:
     It is a graphic representation of the number of individuals per unit area at various trophic levels of a food chain.
    Example Usually, producers are present in large number, primary consumers are in lesser number, and secondary consumers are fewer.


    Q.38 Define symbiosis.
    Ans:
     It is a relationship between members of different species, in which they live together for longer or shorter period of time.
    Example
    Lichens (Association between algae and fungi)


    Q.39 Define Ecology.
    Ans:
     The study of the interrelationship between living organisms and their environment is called ecology.


    Q.40 Define Species.
    Ans:
     A species is a group of organisms which can interbreed freely in nature to produce fertile offspring.
    Example Human, Cat, Dog etc.


    Q.41 Define Ecosystem.
    Ans: 
    The self-sufficient unit of an environment that is formed as a result of interactions between its biotic communities and the abiotic components is called ecosystem.


    Q.42 What are herbivores?
    Ans:
     These animals feed directly on plants or products of plants. They are also called primary consumers.
    Examples
    Cattle, deer, rabbit, grasshopper etc.


    Q.43 What are omnivores?
    Ans:
     Those consumers that eat animal flesh as well as plants and plant products are called omnivores.
    Examples
    Human, Crow


    Q.44 Define trophic level.
    Ans: 
    Trophic level is the level at which an organism feeds in food chain. The first trophic level is made of producers; the second of primary consumers and so on.


    Q.45 Define pyramid of energy.
    Ans:
     It is a graphic representation of energy present in a biomass of living organisms at various trophic levels of a food chain.
    Example
    The amount of energy is decreased from producers to decomposers as some amount of energy is used by the organisms to perform work while some of it is lost as heat.


    Q.46 What is meant by assimilation?
    Ans:
     It is a process in which the nitrates are absorbed by plants and are utilized for making proteins, nucleic acid etc. Animals take nitrogenous compounds from plants. The utilization of nitrates by organisms is called assimilation.


    Q.47 What is parasite?
    Ans:
     A parasite is an organism that gets shelter and food from its host and in return harms it.
    Examples Plasmodium, Amoeba etc.


    Q.48 Define Urbanization.
    Ans: 
    Urbanization means growing of cities. People move from rural areas to cities in search of better jobs, education opportunities and higher standards of living.


    Q.49 What are primary consumers? Give one example.
    Ans:
     The organisms which feed directly on plants or products of plants are called primary consumers.
    e.g. sheep, goat etc.


    Q.50 Write four effects of air pollution.
    Ans:
     i. Smog formation
    ii. Acid rains
    iii. Ozone depletion
    iv. Global warming


    Q.51 Define pollutants.
    Ans:
     The substance that actually cause pollution called pollutants. They may be industrial effluents, domestic wastes, medical wastes etc. Pollutants are of two types:-
    a. Biodegradable and
    b. Non-biodegradable


    Q.52 What is noise? Write its Effects.
    Ans:
     Unwanted and annoying sounds are termed as noise. Effects of noise pollution are aggression, hearing loss, depression, hypertension etc.


    Q.53 What is green house effect?
    Ans:
     Certain gases trap heat in environment. These gases act like the glass in a green house which does not allow the inner heat to escape. When sunlight reaches to earth surface, much of its energy is converted into heat energy. Earth reflects the heat energy back into space in the form of infra-red radiation. Green house gases (CO2, CH4, Nitrous oxide) trap these infra-red radiations and send it back to earth.


    Q.54 What is global warming?
    Ans:
     The addition of green house gases (e.g; carbon dioxide, methane, ozone) in atmosphere increases the temperature of the earth. These gases remain in the lowest part of earth’s atmosphere and do not allow solar radiations to reflect back into the space. As a result, heat remains within the Earth’s atmosphere and increases its temperature. This is called global warming.


    Q.55 Define biomass?
    Ans:
     The total amount of living or organic matter in an ecosystem at any time is called biomass.


    Q.56 Define nutrient cycle?
    Ans: 
    The movement of elements and inorganic compounds from environment to organisms and back to environment.


    Q.57 What are the effects of denitrification?
    Ans:
     Excessive denitrification reduces soil fertility and is stimulated by water-logging, lack of aeration and accumulation of organic matter in the soil.

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    MCQs

    1.Which of the following is the abiotic component of an ecosystem?
    (a) Producers
    (b) Herbivores
    (c) Carnivores
    (d) Oxygen


    2.When we eat the onion, our trophic level is;
    (a) Primary consumer
    (b) Secondary Consumer
    (c) Decomposer
    (d) Producer


    3.Identify the correctly matched pair:
    (a) Rainfall- biotic factors in ecosystem
    (b) Global warming- formation of fossil fuels
    (c) Renewable natural resources-air
    (d) Corn- secondary consumer


    4.In the food chain tree — caterpillar robin hawk coyote, which is secondary consumer?
    (a) Caterpillar
    (b) Robin
    (c) Hawk
    (d) Coyote


    5.In an ecosystem the flow of is one way, while is/are constantly recycled.
    (a) Minerals, energy
    (b) Energy, minerals
    (c) Oxygen, energy
    (d) Glucose, water


    6.In the food chain “grass rabbit fox — bear mushroom”, how many types of decomposers are present?
    (a) 1
    (c) 3
    (b) 2
    (d) 4


    7.Organisms in the ecosystem that are responsible for the recycling of plant and animal wastes are;
    (a) Consumers
    (b) Producers
    (c) Decomposers
    (d) Competitors


    8.Which form of Nitrogen is taken by the producers of the ecosystem?
    (a) Nitrogen gas.
    (b) Ammonia
    (c) Nitrites
    (d) Nitrates


    9.The type of environment in which a particular species lives is called;
    (a) Ecosystem
    (b) Habitat
    (c) Biosphere
    (d) Community


    10.Which of the following organisms are decomposers?
    (a) Fungi
    (c) Bacteria
    (b) Algae
    (d) Both a & c.

    11.The lowest trophic level of an ecosystem always includes:
    (a) Herbivores
    (b) Carnivores
    (c) Producers
    (d) Decomposers


    12.Habitat destruction can result in a loss of:
    (a) Species
    (b) Population
    (c) Community
    (d) Ecosystem


    13.The type of symbiotic relationship in which one member get benefit and other is unaffected is called:
    (a) Parasitism
    (b) Mutualism
    (c) Commensalism
    (d) Predation


    14.Which one is not an example of abiotic factor?
    (a) Decomposers
    (b) Light
    (c) Water
    (d) Soil


    15.An organism that actively hunts other organisms is called:
    (a) Prey
    (b) Predator
    (c) Parasite
    (d) Host


    16.The type of symbiotic relationship in which one member get benefit and other is harmed is called:
    (a) Parasitism
    (b) Mutualism
    (c) Commensalism
    (d) Predation


    17.Organisms that make their own food with help of sunlight, CO₂ and H₂O are called;
    (a) Consumers
    (b) Producers
    (c) Decomposers
    (d) Predators


    18.The conversion of ammonia to nitrates is carried out by soil bacteria. This process is called:
    (a) Nitrification
    (b) Denitrification
    (c) Nitrogen fixation
    (d) Assimilation


    19.A group of organisms, similar to one another, which can interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring:
    (a) Species
    (b) Genus
    (c) Family
    (d) Population


    20.Water, soil, air, temperature, wind and sunlight are examples of:
    (a) Biotic factors
    (b) Biomass
    (c) Environment
    (d) Abiotic factors

    21.A relationship between two organisms in which individual of one species may kill and eat individuals of other species is called:
    (a) Symbiosis
    (b) Competition
    (c) Predation
    (d) Mutualism


    22.A relationship between species in which both species benefit is called:
    (a) Parasitism
    (b) Mutualism
    (c) Symbiosis
    (d) Commensalism


    23.The self-sufficient unit of environment that is formed as a result of interaction between its biotic community and its abiotic components is known as:
    (a) Biosphere
    (b) Habitat
    (c) Ecosystem
    (d) Food web


    24.A network of all the feeding relationships in an ecosystem is called:
    (a) Food chain
    (b) Food web
    (c) Trophic level
    (d) Energy flow


    25.The thickness of biosphere is:
    (a) 02 km
    (c) 50 km
    (b) 20 km
    (d) 200 km


    26.get solar energy and transform it into chemical energy by the process of photosynthesis.
    (a) Decomposers
    (b) Producers
    (c) Consumers
    (d) Predators


    27.The materials flow from one trophic level to the next by means of;
    (a) Food chains
    (b) Food web
    (c) Both a & b
    (d) None


    28.The base of food chain is always formed by;.
    (a) Producers
    (b) Consumers
    (c) Decomposers
    (d) Heterotrophs


    29.In 1927, developed the concept of ecological pyramids.
    (a) Kelvin
    (b) Lamarck
    (c) Charles Elton
    (d) Charles Darwin


    30.atom is the principal building block of many kinds of biomolecules.
    (a) Oxygen
    (b) Carbon
    (c) Hydrogen
    (d) Nitrogen

    31.Which one of the following is not an example of fossil fuels?
    (a) Plants
    (b) Peat
    (c) Coal
    (d) Natural Gas


    32.The major process that brings carbon from atmosphere into living world is:
    (a) Photosynthesis
    (b) Respiration
    (c) Both a & b
    (d) None


    33.Nitrogen is an important component of:
    (a) Proteins
    (b) Nucleic Acid
    (c) Lipids
    (d) Both a & b


    34.is the breakdown of the proteins of dead organisms to ammonia.
    (a) Ammonification
    (b) Nitrification
    (c) Denitrification
    (d) None


    35.The utilization of nitrates by organisms is called:
    (a) Nitrification
    (b) Ammonification
    (c) Assimilation
    (d) Denitrification


    36.Which one of the following is not a temporary parasite?
    (a) Mosquito
    (b) Virus
    (c) Leech
    (d) Bed bug


    37.Which one of the following is not an endoparasite?
    (a) Ascaris
    (b) Plasmodium
    (c) Entamoeba
    (d) Mosquito


    38.An epiphyte is an example of:
    (a) Parasitism
    (b) Mutualism
    (c) Commensalism
    (d) Symbiosis


    39.Which one is an example of epiphyte?
    (a) Mosquito
    (b) Orchid
    (c) Rhizobium
    (d) Plasmodium


    40.Which of the following is not an example of green house gas?
    (a) CO2
    (b) Methane
    (c) Oxygen
    (d) Nitrous Oxide

    41.The current level of urbanization in Pakistan is about which is not high by global standards.
    (a) 23%
    (b) 32%
    (c) 36%
    (d) 39%


    42.Abiotic component of ecosystem is;
    (a) Producers
    (b) Herbivores
    (c) Carnivores
    (d) Oxygen


    43.A symbiotic interaction in which both partners get benefits;
    (a) Mutualism
    (b) Commensalism
    (c) Parasitism
    (d) Predation


    44.The consumers that eat animal flesh as well as plants and plant products are called: (Board 2013)
    (a) Herbivores
    (b) Carnivores
    (c) Omnivores
    (d) Insectivores


    45.Living of nitrogen fixer bacteria in the root nodules of leguminous plants is an example of;
    (a) Predation
    (b) Parasitism
    (c) Mutualism
    (d) Commensalism


    46.The perfect cycle is;
    (a) Carbon cycle
    (b) Nitrogen cycle
    (c) Water cycle
    (d) All of the above


    47.Nitrogenous waste includes;
    (a) Ammonia
    (b) Urea
    (c) Uric acid
    (d) All of the above


    48.Plants show competition for;
    (a) Space
    (b) Light
    (c) Water and Minerals
    (d) All of the above


    49.Flow of energy is always;
    (a) Unidirectional
    (b) Two directional
    (c) Multidirectional
    (d) No directional


    50.IPCC stands for;
    (a) International project of climate change
    (b) Intergovernmental Project of climate change
    (c) Intergovernmental panel on climate change
    (d) International panel on climate change


    51.The temperature of Earth’s surface has increased per decade in the past 30 years;
    (a) 0.1°C
    (b) 0.2°C
    (c) 0.3°C
    (d) 0.4°C


    52.Since 1800, amount of CO2 in atmosphere has increased about;
    (a) 20%
    (b) 30%
    (c) 40%
    (d) 50%


    53.Since 1800, amount of nitrous oxide has increased about;
    (a) 2%
    (b) 6%
    (c) 8%
    (d) 10%


    54.According to estimate at the current rate of increase, the average global temperature will go upto by in the next 100 years.
    (a) 8°C
    (b) 6-8°C
    (c) 3-8°C
    (d) 5-8°C


    55.Pakistan growth rate in 1991 was;
    (a) 2%
    (b) 2.50%
    (c) 2.69%
    (d) 2.89%


    56.In 2003, a survey on tanneries in Kasur City showed that of cancer residents suffered from infections of kidney or loss of eyesight.
    (a)1/4
    (B)2/3
    (C)1/3
    (d)2/4


    57.Recycling of one tonne paper can save.
    (a) 10 trees
    (b) 15 trees
    (c) 18 trees
    (d) 17 trees


    58.people are at risk of dengue.
    (a) 1.5 billion
    (b) 2.5billion
    (c) 3.5 billion
    (d) 2.5 million


    59.Scientists fear that sea level is rising upto per year.
    (a) 0.8 cm
    (b) 10 cm
    (c) 0.9 cm
    (d) 9 cm


    60.It is estimated that Maldives might become uninhabitable within;
    (a) 50 years
    (b) 80 years
    (c) 100 years
    (d) 130 years

    61.When living and non-living interact to produce a stable system in which exchange of material with flow of energy takes place, it forms a/an:
    (a) Environment
    (b) Stable community
    (c) Ecosystem
    (d) Ecological succession


    62.The living organisms which cannot prepare their own food but obtain ready made food from others, are;
    (a) Primary and Secondary consumers
    (b) Secondary and tertiary consumers
    (c) Only primary consumers
    (d) All types of Consumers.


    63.How many tanneries are operating in Kasur city;
    (a) More than 300
    (b) More than 200
    (c) 500
    (d) 1000


    64.Upper layer of the atmosphere is called;
    (a) Biosphere
    (b) Lithosphere
    (c) Hydrosphere
    (d) Stratosphere


    65.At which trophic level in a food chain, carnivores get food?
    (a) First trophic level
    (b) Second trophic level
    (c) Fourth trophic level
    (d) Third trophic level


    66.Fungi digest the dead organic matter with the help of;
    (a) Enzymes
    (b) Acids
    (c) Hormones
    (d) Bases


    67.Which is an ectoparasite?
    (a) Liver fluke
    (b) Ascaris
    (c) Tape worm
    (d) Leech


    68.The favourable variations tend to be;
    (a) Eliminated
    (b) Passed to next generation
    (c) Unexpressed
    (d) Changed


    69.Habitat is an example of;
    (a) Biological character
    (b) Chemical character
    (c) Physical Character
    (d) Behavioural character


    70.A group of organisms which can interbreed freely in nature to produce fertile offspring is called;
    (a) Population
    (b) Community
    (c) Species
    (d) Ecosystem


    71.An Aquarium is an example of Ecosystem;
    (a) Natural
    (b) Artificial
    (c) Aquatic
    (d) Terrestrial


    72.Graphic representation of the number of individuals per unit area at various trophic levels of a food chain is called;
    (a) Pyramid of Biomass
    (b) Pyramid of numbers
    (c) Pyramid of energy
    (d) Food web


    73.More than normal denitrification change the richness of soil as;16(085)
    (a) Increase
    (b) Less
    (c) Bad
    (d) Finished


    74.An example of Carnivore plants is:
    (a) Rose plant
    (b) Mosses
    (c) Pitcher plant
    (d) Ferns

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  • 10th Class biology  Chapter 15: Inheritance

    10th Class Chapter 15: Inheritance Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 15 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 15 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q.1 Define Genetics.
    Ans.
     It is a branch of biology which deals with the study of inheritance.


    Q.2 Define Inheritance.
    Ans:
     Inheritance means the transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring.


    Q.3 What are traits? Write two human traits.
    Ans.
     Characters which are transmitted from parents to offspring are called traits. In man, height, eye colour etc are examples of traits and are inheritable.


    Q.4 What are Genes?
    Ans
    . Genes are segments of DNA. Each specific gene contains instructions for the synthesis of specific protein.


    Q.5 What are homologous chromosomes?
    Ans.
     The body cells have constant number of paired chromosomes. The two chromosomes of a pair are called as homologous chromosomes. For example, in human body cells, there are 23pairs of homologous chromosomes for a total of 46 chromosomes.


    Q.6 How is chromatin/ chromosome made up of?
    Ans.
     Chromatin or chromosome is made up of DNA and protein.


    Q.7 What is nucleosome?
    Ans.
     In chromatin, DNA wraps around histone proteins and form round structure called as nucleosome. DNA is also present between nucleosomes. In this way, nucleosomes and DNA between them look like beads on string.


    Q.8 Define Double helix.
    Ans.
     DNA consists of two polynucleotide strands which are coiled around each other in the form of Double helix. There is phosphate-sugar backbone on outside, while nitrogenous bases are on inside of double helix.


    Q.9 Define DNA replication.
    Ans.
     It is a process in which one parental DNA is divided into two genetically identical daughter DNA molecules.


    Q.10 What is the purpose of DNA replication?
    Ans.
     DNA replication is done to make the copies of chromatids of chromosomes.


    Q.11 How does DNA work?
    Ans.
     DNA is genetic material. It performs its role by giving instructions for the synthesis of specific proteins. Some proteins perform structural role while others act as enzymes to control all bio-chemical reactions of cells.


    Q.12 Differentiate between transcription and translation.
    Ans.
     Transcription
    It is a process in which specific sequence of DNA nucleotides is copied in the form of messenger RNA (mRNA).
    ii. Translation The mRNA carries the sequence of its nucleotides to ribosomes. Ribosomes read this sequence and joins specific amino acids, according to it proteins are synthesized.


    Q.13 Define a Gene. Write symbols of Genes for any two traits.
    Ans.
     Definition
    Particular segment of DNA that contains instructions for synthesis of particular protein is called as gene.
    OR
    Particular sequence of nucleotides that contains instructions for synthesis of particular protein is called as gene.
    Symbols of Genes
    The trait of round seeds (controlled by allele R) was dominant over wrinkled (controlled by. allele r) seeds. Similarly yellow seed (controlled by Y) was dominant over green (controlled by y).


    Q.14 Define Allele.
    Ans.
     Genes occur in pairs on homologous chromosomes. Each member of gene pair is called as allele. The alternative forms of a gene are called as alleles e.g. ‘A’ and ‘a’ are two alternative forms of a gene or ‘B’ and ‘b’ are two another alternative forms of a gene.


    Q.15 Define Locus.
    Ans.
     Location or position of gene on chromosome is called as its locus.


    Q.16 What is genotypė? Describe its Types.
    Ans.
     The specific combinations of genes in an individual is known as genotype. It has two types i.e. Homozygous and Heterozygous
    (i) Homozygous Genotypes.
    The genotype in which gene pair contains two identical alleles (AA,aa) is called as homozygous genotype.
    (ii) Heterozygous genotype
    The genotype in which gene pair contains two different alleles (Aa) is called as heterozygous
    genotype.


    Q.17 Define Albinism
    Ans.
     It is a condition in which normal body pigments are absent.


    Q.18 Differentiate between dominant alleles and recessive allele.
    Ans.
     i. Dominant Allele
    In the heterozygous condition, one allele masks or prevents the expression of the other, such allele is called as dominant allele. Dominant alleles are represented by capital letters e.g., I^ IB
    ii. Recessive Allele
    The allele which is not expressed is called as recessive allele. Recessive alleles are represented by lower case letters e.g., ii.


    Q.19 What features should be present in an organism used for genetic experiments?
    Ans.
     Organism used in genetic experiments should have following features:-
    There should be number of different traits that can be studied.
    The organism should have contrasting traits e.g. for the trait of height, there should be only two very different phenotypes i.e. Tallness and dwarfness.
    The organisms (if it is plant) should be self-fertilizing but cross fertilization should also be possible.
    The organism, should have a short but fast life cycle.


    Q.20 Differentiate between monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross. OR Define monohybrid and dihybrid cross.
    Ans.
     A cross in which only one trait is studied at a time is called as monohybrid cross e.g. cross between true-breeding round seeded plant and true breeding wrinkled seeded plant. In this case one trait i.e seed shape is under study.
    A cross in which two traits are studied at a time is called as dihybrid cross e.g. cross between true breeding round yellow seeded plants and wrinkled green seeded plants. In this case, two traits i.e. seed shape and seed colour are under study.


    Q.21 What is meant by P_{1} F_{1} and F_{2} generations?
    Ans.
     P1 generation First parental generation is known as P1 generation.
    F1 generation
    Means first filial. The offspring of P_{1} generation are called as F_{1} generation.
    F2 Generation
    Means second filial. The offspring of F 1. generation are called as F_{2} Generation.


    Q.22 Define Law of Segregation.
    Ans. 
    This law states that during gamete formation, the genes (alleles) of each pair segregate from each other and each gamete receives one gene from the pair when the gametes of male and female parents unite, the resulting offspring again gets the genes in pairs.


    Q.23 Define Mendel’s Law of independent assortment.
    Ans.
     This law states that the alleles of a gene pair segregate (get separated and distributed to gametes) independently from the alleles of other gene pairs.


    Q.24 Define co-dominance. Give an example.
    Ans.
     It is a situation. in which two different alleles of a gene pair express themselves completely, instead of showing a dominant-recessive relationship. As a result, heterozygous organisms shows a phenotype that is different from both homozygous parents. For example human blood group AB.


    Q.25 Define incomplete dominance. Give example.
    Ans.
     It is a situation in which phenotypic expression of heterozygous organism is intermediate to phenotype expressions shown by both homozygous organisms. Both alleles in heterozygous organisms express this blend (mixture) and neither allele is dominant over the other.
    For example pink flowered four o’clock plant.


    Q.26 Define variation. Give sources of variations.
    Ans.
     Differences shown by individuals of same species are called variations. Important sources of variations are as following:-
    (i) Crossing Over
    (ii) Mutation
    (iii) Random Fertilization
    (iv) Gene flow


    Q.27 Define Gene flow.
    Ans.
     Movement of genes from one population to other population is called gene flow;


    Q.28 Describe types of variations with examples.
    Ans.
     There are two types of variations:
    1. Continuous variations
    Those variations in which phenotypes show a complete range of measurements from one extreme to other are called as continuous variations.
    Height, weight, feet size, intelligence etc. are examples of continuous variations. In every human population, the individuals have a range of heights. No populations can show only two or three distinct heights. Continuous variations are controlled by many genes and are then affected by environmental factors.
    2. Discontinuous variations
    These are the variations which show distinct phenotypes which can be easily distinguished from each other. The phenotypes of such variations cannot be measured.
    Blood groups are good examples of discontinuous variations. In human population, an individual has one of the four distinct blood groups and cannot have in between. Such variations are controlled by alleles of single gene. The environment has little effect on this type of variations.


    Q.29 Define Organic or Biological Evolution.
    Ans.
     Organic or Biological evolution is change in characteristics of population or species of organisms over the course of generations.
    The changes in an individual are not considered as evolution because evolution refers to populations, not to the individuals.


    Q.30 What processes are involved in Organic evolution.
    Ans.
     There are two major processes involved in organic evolution.
    Alteration in genetic characteristics (traits) of a type of organisms over time.
    Creation of new types of organisms from a single type.


    Q.31 What is anti-evolution or theory of special creation?
    Ans. 
    The anti-evolution idea supports that all living things had been created in their current form only a few thousand years ago. It is also known as theory of special creation.


    Q.32 Define Natural selection.
    Ans.
     Natural selection is process by which the better genetic variations become more common in successive generations of population.


    Q.33 Define Artificial selection/selective breeding
    Ans.
     Artificial selection (selective breeding) means intentional breeding between individuals for certain traits or combination of traits.


    Q.34 Differentiate between breeds and varieties or cultivars.
    Ans.
     In artificial selection, the bred animals are known as breeds, while bred plants are known as varieties or cultivars.


    Q.35 Define genotype and phenotype.
    Ans.
     Genotype
    The specific combination of genes in an individual is known as genotype.
    Phenotype
    The expressión of genotype in the form of trait is known as phenotype.


    Q.36. What is template strand?
    Ans.
     The strand of DNA to which new strand is formed called template strand.


    Q.37. Define Punnett Square?
    Ans.
     It is a diagram used to predict an outcome of a particular cross or breeding experiment. The gametes of both parents having all possible genetic make-up (set-ups) are determined.


    Q.38. What will be Genotype of plants produced as a result of cross between two plants having Genotype Rr?
    Ans.
     When two heterozygous plants with pink flowers (Rr) are crossed, F2 generation shows
    phenotypes of red, pink and white flowers in ratio 1:2:1.

    1.Which part of carpel receives pollen grains during pollination
    (a) Ovary
    (b) Style
    (c) Stigma
    (d) None of these


    2.The development of egg without fertilization is called

    (a)Parthenogenesis
    (b)Budding
    (c)Spore formation
    (d)Fission


    3.The principal adaptations for insect attraction are
    (a)Color
    (b)Scent
    (c)Nectar
    (d)All of these


    4.External fertilization occurs mostly in
    (a)Aquatic animals
    (b)Land animals
    (c)Protozoans
    (d)None of these


    5.Which does not belong to stamen
    (a)Filament
    (b)Anther
    (c)Pollen sacs
    (d)Stigma


    6.The ability of organisms to produce young ones of their own kind to maintain the species is called
    (a)Transpiration
    (b)Reproduction
    (c)Respiration
    (d)Photosynthesis


    7.Which is not an example insect pollinated flower?
    (a)Rose
    (b)Buttercup
    (c)Orchid
    (d)Corn


    8.The endosperm tissue in the angiosperms consists of
    (a)Haploid
    (b)Diploid
    (c)Triploid
    (d)Tetraploid


    9.Which one of the following is not characteristic of sexual reproduction?
    (a)Formation of gametes
    (b)Fusion of gametes to form zygote
    (c)Genetically alike individuals from a parent 
    (d)Adaptation of a species


    10.In which parts of flower does meiosis occur?
    (a)Anther 
    (b)Petal
    (c)Receptacle
    (d)Sepal


    11.What is the optimum range of temperature for the germination of seeds?
    (a)5-30oC
    (b)15-30oC
    (c)20-30oC
    (d)25-30oC


    12.The type of asexual reproduction that occurs in hydra is
    (a)Multiple fission
    (b)Budding
    (c)Regeneration
    (d)Parthenogenesis


    13.Which one of the following is not an artificial method of asexual reproduction
    (a)Layering
    (b)Budding
    (c)Cutting
    (d)Grafting


    14.After fertilization, which structure develops into the seed of a flowering plant?
    (a)Carpel
    (b)Ovule
    (c)Ovum
    (d)Stamen


    15.Asexual reproduction occurs through spore formation in
    (a)Amoeba
    (b)Yeast
    (c)Rhizopus
    (d)All of these


    16.Internal fertilization is common in
    (a)Aquatic animals
    (b)Land animals 
    (c)Protozoans
    (d)None of these


    17.In plants, the spore develops into
    (a)Gametophyte
    (b)Sporophyte
    (c)Both of these
    (d)None of these


    18.Examples of parthenogenesis in animals except
    (a)Ant
    (b)Honey bee
    (c)Hydra
    (d)Wasp


    19.Oogenesis takes place in
    (a)Testes
    (b)Ovaries
    (c)Anther
    (d)None of these


    20.Pollen sacs contain
    (a)Megaspores
    (b)Microspores
    (c)Micropyle
    (d)Ovule


    21.Which structure of seed absorbs water during the process of its germination?
    (a)Hilum 
    (b)Micropyle
    (c)Hypocotyl
    (d)Epicotyl


    22.Fertilization may be
    (a)External
    (b)Internal
    (c)Both of these 
    (d)None of these


    23.Which is the pathway taken by a pollen tube after pollination of a flower?
    (a)Filament-stigma-style
    (b)Ovule-style-stigma
    (c)Stigma-filament-ovule
    (d)Stigma-style-ovule 


    24.What type of cell division occurs in asexual reproduction
    (a)Mitosis
    (b)Meiosis
    (c)Both a & b
    (d)None of these


    25.In plants meiosis takes place
    (a)In During the formation of gametes by haploid plant
    (b)During the formation of gametes by diploid plant
    (c)During the formation of spores by the diploid plant 
    (d)All of these


    26.The process which leads to the union of gametes is known as
    (a)Reproduction
    (b)Fertilization
    (c)Development
    (d)None of these


    27.Double fertilization is a special process found in
    (a)Angiosperms
    (b)Gymnosperms
    (c)Gymnosperms
    (d)None of these


    28.Following are the common asexual methods of reproduction except
    (a)Pollination
    (b)Multiple fission
    (c)Grafting
    (d)Fragmentation


    29.What type of cell division occurs in sexual reproduction
    (a)Mitosis
    (b)Meiosis
    (c)Both a & b
    (d)None of these

    30.The female gametophyte of angiosperms consists of
    (a)5 cells
    (b)7 cells
    (c)8 cells
    (d)10 cells

    31.Which does not belong to carpel?
    (a)Ovary
    (b)Style
    (c)Anther
    (d)Stigma

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  • 10th Class biology Chapter 14: Reproduction

    10th Class Chapter 14: Reproduction Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 14 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 14 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q1. Define reproduction.
    Ans.
     Reproduction is defined as the production of individuals of the same species i.e. the next generation of species.


    Q2. What are types of reproduction?
    Ans.
     (i) Asexual reproduction
    It means the simple cell division that produces an exact duplicate of an organism.
    (ii) Sexual reproduction
    It involves the joining of male and female sex cells i.e gametes.


    Q3. Define binary fission.
    Ans
    . Binary fission means division into two. It is the simplest and most common method of asexual reproduction. It occurs in prokaryotes, many unicellular eukaryotes e.g. protozoa and some invertebrates.


    Q4. What is Fragmentation?
    Ans.
     The type of asexual reproduction in which the organisms break up into pieces. For example, planarian breaks into 8-9 pieces instead of two.


    Q5. Define Budding.
    Ans.
     It is the type of asexual reproduction in which a bud develops as a small outgrowth on parents body. For example, in yeast, a small bud is formed on one side of body of cell. The nucleus of cell divides and one of the nucleus is passed on to bud and form new cell.


    Q6. Differentiate between spore and endospore.
    Ans.
     Spore
    In most of fungi like rhizopus, when they reaches at reproduction age, its body cells form thick walled sacs called sporangia. Inside each sporangia, a cell divides many times and forms many daughter cells called spore.
    Endospore
    Under unfavourable conditions, some species of bacteria reproduce by forming spores e.g., Clostridium and Bacillus species. Thick walled spores are formed inside bacterial cell. This is called endospores.


    Q7. Define Parthenogenesis.
    Ans.
     Type of asexual reproduction in which an unfertilized egg develops into new offspring. For example, some fishes, frogs and insects reproduce by means of parthenogenesis.


    Q8. What is Vegetative propagation?
    Ans.
     When vegetative parts of plants i.e. the roots, stems or leaves give rise to new plants, the process is called vegetative propagation.


    Q9. What is Cuttings?
    Ans.
     In this method, cuttings may be taken mainly from stems or roots of parent plant. When cuttings are placed in a suitable soil and under light conditions, they may form roots and shoots. These roots and shoots grow and develop into a new plant. Examples are roses, ivy and grapevines.


    Q10. Define Grafting.
    Ans.
     In this method, a piece of stem is cut from the plant and is attached with another plant. After a while, the vascular system of attached stem and the host plant are connected. The stem piece and the plant begin to grow together. Examples are Roses, peach trees and various seedless fruits.


    Q11. What is Alternation of Generation in plants.
    Ans. 
    In the life cycle of flowering plants, the two generations alternate with each other. The phenomenon in which the sporophyte generation gives rise to gametophyte and gametophyte generation gives rise to sporoplyte is called alternation of generation.


    Q12. Define Double fertilization.
    Ans. 
    The type of fertilization in which one sperm fuses with egg and forms a zygote. The other sperm fuses with the diploid fusion nucleus and forms a triploid endosperm nucleus. This process is called double fertilization.


    Q13. What is Pollination?
    Ans.
     The transfer of pollen grains from flower’s anther to stigma.
    Types
    a) Self pollination
    The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or the other flower of same plant.
    b) Cross pollination
    The transfer of pollen grains from the flower on one plant to the flower on other plant of same
    species.


    Q14. What is seed coat?
    Ans.
     It is the outer protective covering of a seed. It may be paper thin layer or thick and hard. Seed coat protects embryo from mechanical injury and from drying.


    Q15. Define Hilum.
    Ans. 
    Hilum is a scar on seed coat, where the seed is attached to ovary wall.


    Q16. Give the Difference between epicotyl and hypocotyl.
    Ans.
     The embryonic stem above the point of attachment to cotyledon is called epicotyl and the embryonic stem below the point of attachment to cotyledon is called hypocotyl.


    Q17. Differentiate between epigeal and hypogeal germination. (Board 2013)
    Ans.
     In epigeal germination, the hypocotyl elongates and forms a hook, pulling the cotyledons above the ground, e.g. beans and cotton while in hypogeal germination, the epicotyl elongates and forms the hook, the cotyledons stay underground e.g. pea and maize.


    Q18. Define Germination.
    Ans.
     It is a process by which a seed embryo develops into a seedling.


    Q19. What is Fertilization?
    Ans. 
    After the formation of gametes, fertilization occurs. These are of two types:
    (a) External fertilization
    In external fertilization, egg cells are fertilized outside the body. It requires both the male and the female animals to release their gametes into their surroundings at the same time. It occurs in most
    of the invertebrates, fishes and amphibians.
    (b) Internal fertilization
    In internal fertilization, egg cells are fertilized within the reproductive tract of female. It occurs in reptiles, birds and mammals.


    Q20. Define Semen.
    Ans. 
    It is the materials containing sperms in a fluid. It consists of 10% sperms and 90% fluid.


    Q.21 Define acrosome.
    Ans.
     Cap-like head of sperm cell which helps it in penetrating the egg cell is called acrosome.


    Q.22 What do you know about cervix?
    Ans: 
    In female reproductive system, the part which separates uterus from vagina is called cervix.


    Q.23 What is Cowper’s gland? Where sperms of male are deposited.
    Ans: 
    An accessory gland in rabbit’s male reproductive system which provides lubrication to the ducts. Cervix is the portion of uterus where sperms of male are deposited.


    Q.24 Define Epididimys.
    Ans:
     A storage area for sperms on the upper part of the testes is called epididimys.


    Q.25 Define Fallopian tube.
    Ans:
     A part of the female reproductive system, receives egg cell discharged from the ovary.


    Q.26 What is Follicle?
    Ans:
     A structure in the ovary in which the mature egg develops.


    Q.27 What is parthenocarpy?
    Ans: 
    The process in which ovaries develop into fruit without the fertilization inside the ovules present in them, it results in seedless fruits e.g. bananas.


    Q.28 What is prostate glands?
    Ans: 
    An accessory gland in the male reproductive system, produces a secretion that neutralizes the acidity..


    Q.29 What is seminal vesicle?
    Ans:
     The associated gland in male reproductive system produces secretions having nutrients for the sperms.


    Q.30 Define seminiferous tubule.
    Ans:
     These are coiled tubes present in testes and sperms are formed in these tubules.


    Q.31 Define uterus horn.
    Ans: 
    The two separate parts of the uterus in the female rabbit are like horns so they are called uterus horns.


    Q.32 What is vas deferens?
    Ans:
     The tubes that carry sperms from each testis to the urethra.


    Q.33 How multiple fission in Amoeba takes place?
    Ans:
     Some unicellular organisms (e.g. Amoeba) form hard walls called cysts around them under unfavourable conditions. When favourable, conditions return, the nucleus of parent divides into many daughter nuclei and the division of cytoplasm occurs.
    Each cytoplasm along with nucleus form daughter cell, so a large number of daughter cells are formed from a single parent. This is how multiple fission takes place in Amoeba.


    Q.34 What is difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
    Ans: 
    The process of formation of sperms in testes is called spermatogenesis while the process of formation of eggs in ovaries is called oogenesis.

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    MCQs

    1.Growing an entire new plant from part of the original plant is called;
    (a) Budding
    (b) Regeneration
    (c) Fragmentation
    (d) Vegetative propagation


    2.Rhizopus reproduces asexually by;
    (a) Binary fission
    (b) Budding
    (c) Spore formation
    (d) Endospore formation


    3.A corm develops into new garlic plant.
    This is the process of;
    (a) Vegetative propagation
    (b) Regeneration
    (c) Meiosis
    (d) Gametogenesis


    4.Which is not an advantage of grafting?
    (a) The graft is identical to the parent plant
    (b) Grafting allows the propagation of seedless fruits
    (c) The graft combines the characteristics of two plants
    (d) Grafting may allow for the faster production of desirable fruits


    5.Pollination is the transfer of pollens from;
    (a) Anther to stigma
    (b) Stigma to anther
    (c) Sepal to petal
    (d) Petal to sejpal


    6.Double fertilization in plants means;
    (a) Fusion of two sperms with two egg cells
    (b) Fusion of cone sperm with egg cell and other sperm with fusion nucleus
    (c) Fusion of two sperms with single egg cell
    (d) Fusion of tube nucleus with fusion nucleus and sperm egg cell


    7.After fertilization in plants, the fruit develops from;
    (a) Ovule wall
    (b) Ovary wall,
    (c) Petals
    (d) Anther


    8.Which part of female reproductive system receives egg cells from the ovary?
    (a) Fallopian tube
    (b) Uterus
    (c) Vagina
    (d) Collecting duct


    9.Inside testes, sperms are produced in;
    (a) Vas deferens
    (b) Sperm duct
    (c) Seminiferous tubules
    (d) Collecting duct


    10.Which of these cell has haploid number of chromosomes?
    (a) Spermatogonium
    (b) Primary spermatocyte
    (c) Secondary spermatocyte
    (d) All of these


    11.During binary fission, the nucleus of parent organism divides into two by;
    (a) Sexual reproduction
    (b) Meiosis
    (c) Mitosis
    (d) None of these


    12.If a planarian breaks into many pieces instead of two, it will be called;
    (a) Budding
    (b) Spore formation
    (c) Binary fission
    (d) Fragmantaion


    13.In fungi, the spore is covered by a thick wall called;
    (a) Sporangium
    (b) Sporophyte
    (c) Cyst
    (d) Endospores

    14.The eggs of the honeybee remain unfertilized and develops into haploid males by;
    (a) Budding
    (b) Parthenocarpy
    (c) Regeneration
    (d) Parthenogenesis


    15.In tissue culture technique, cell starts mitosis and produce masses of cells called;
    (a) Clonning
    (b) Graftings
    (c) Calluses
    (d) Rhizome


    16.During binary fission, how many cells are formed?
    (a) Two daughter cells
    (b) Four cells
    (c) Many cells
    (d) All of these


    17.In the buds do not detach from 17. In the parent body.
    (a) Hydra
    (b) Amoeba
    (c) Bacteria
    (d) Corals


    18.Spores which are formed inside bacterial cells are called;

    (a) Cysts
    (b) Spores
    (c) Endospores
    (d) All of these


    19.Which of followings reproduces by bulbs?

    (a) Garlic
    (b) Ginger
    (c) Ferns
    (d) Tulips


    20.Which method of propagation is also called micro-propagation?

    (a) Cuttings
    (b) Tissue culture
    (c) Grafting
    (d) Suckers

    21.Flowers of wind pollination produce;
    (a) Petals
    (b) Nectar
    (c) No nectar
    (d) Do not reproduce


    22.Buttercup is an example of;
    (a) Wind pollinated flower
    (b) Insect pollinated flower
    (c) Water pollinated flower
    (d) None of these


    23.Which of these germinate by epigeal germination?
    (a) Pea
    (b) Maize
    (c) Beans
    (d) Coconut


    24.The optimum temperature for the germination of the seeds of most plants ranges from;
    (a) 20-30° C
    (b) 25-35°C
    (c) 25-30°C
    (d) 20-25°C


    25.Many diploid oogonia are present in;
    (a) Follicles
    (b) Sperms
    (c) Spermatids
    (d) Scrotum


    26.In which group of mammals, the fertilized egg does not develop inside the mother’s body?

    (a) Chordates
    (b) Egg laying mammals
    (c) Placental mammals
    (d) All of these


    27.Where the sperms of rabbit are produced?
    (a) Cowper’s glands
    (b) Prostate gland
    (c) Collecting ducts
    (d) Seminiferous tubules


    28.Where the sperms of male rabbit are deposited in the female rabbit?

    (a) Horns
    (b) Cervix
    (c) Follicle
    (d) Ovaries


    29.Horizontal underground stems are called:

    (a) Corms
    (b) Rhizomes
    (c) Tubers
    (d) Bulbs

    21.Flowers of wind pollination produce;
    (a) Petals
    (b) Nectar
    (c) No nectar
    (d) Do not reproduce


    22.Buttercup is an example of;
    (a) Wind pollinated flower
    (b) Insect pollinated flower
    (c) Water pollinated flower
    (d) None of these


    23.Which of these germinate by epigeal germination?

    (a) Pea
    (b) Maize
    (c) Beans
    (d) Coconut


    24.The optimum temperature for the germination of the seeds of most plants ranges from;
    (a) 20-30° C
    (b) 25-35°C
    (c) 25-30°C
    (d) 20-25°C


    25.Many diploid oogonia are present in;
    (a) Follicles
    (b) Sperms
    (c) Spermatids
    (d) Scrotum


    26.In which group of mammals, the fertilized egg does not develop inside the mother’s body?
    (a) Chordates
    (b) Egg laying mammals
    (c) Placental mammals
    (d) All of these


    27.Where the sperms of rabbit are produced?
    (a) Cowper’s glands
    (b) Prostate gland
    (c) Collecting ducts
    (d) Seminiferous tubules


    28.Where the sperms of male rabbit are deposited in the female rabbit?

    (a) Horns
    (b) Cervix
    (c) Follicle
    (d) Ovaries


    29.Horizontal underground stems are called:
    (a) Corms
    (b) Rhizomes
    (c) Tubers
    (d) Bulbs

    30.Which part of flower is changed into fruit?
    (a) Ovule
    (b) Ovary
    (c) Petals
    (d) Anther

    31.An example of Rhizome is:
    (a) Onion
    (b) Garlic
    (c) Ginger
    (d) potato

    32.Method of asexual reproduction found in Amoeba is:
    (a) Binary Fission
    (b) Fragmentation
    (c) Budding
    (d) Spore formation


    33.Double fertilization is a feature of:

    (a) Seedless plants
    (b) Gymnosperms
    (c) Flowering plants
    (d) Ferns

    34.Simplest and common method of asexual reproduction is:
    (a) Tissue culture
    (b) Parthenogenesis
    (c) Cloning
    (d) Binary fission

    35.Gametophyte is produced from:
    (a) Gametes
    (b) Zygote
    (c) Spores
    (d) Sporophyte


    36.Roses, ivy, grapevines and sugarcane reproduce by:
    (a) Leaves
    (b) Suckers
    (c) Cuttings
    (d) Suckers and Cuttings

    37.In which of the following, hypogeal germination takes place;
    (a) Beans
    (b) Maize
    (c) Cotton
    (d) Papaya


    38.When was NACP established?
    (a) 1947
    (b) 1997
    (c) 1987
    (d) 2000

    39.Into which part, ovule changes after fertilization?
    (a) Fruit
    (b) Seed
    (c) Flower
    (d) Leaf


    40.In Honeybee the drones are:
    (a) Female flies
    (b) Male flies
    (c) Workers
    (d) Male and female flies

    41.When Pakistan Federal Ministry of Health established NACP?
    (a) 1947
    (b) 1977
    (c) 1987
    (d) 2010


    42.In rabbit, embryo develops into a new offspring in:
    (a) 40-42 days
    (b) 30-40 days
    (c) 30-32 days
    (d) 280 days

    43.By the end of 2010, our population was:
    (a) 176 million
    (b) 400 million
    (c) 180 million
    (d) 500 million


    44.In male rabbit, each testis consists of a mass of coiled tubes called the:
    (a) Epididimys
    (b) Cowper’s gland
    (c) Seminiferous tubules
    (d) Vas deferens


    45.When secondary oocyte completes Meiosis II, how many haploid cells result:
    (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 4
    (d) 5


    46.Which of the following are internal conditions for germination of seed:
    (a) Oxygen
    (b) Live embryo
    (c) Sufficient food storage
    (d) Live embryo and sufficient food storage

    47.The endosperm nucleus is:
    (a) Haploid
    (b) Diploid
    (c) Triploid
    (d) Tetraploid


    48.Which of the following reproduces by grafting?
    (a) Ivy
    (b) Pather Chut
    (c) Plum Trees
    (d) Both Ivy and Pather Chut


    49.The second whorl of the flower is:
    (a) Calyx
    (b) Corolla
    (c) Androecium
    (d) Gynoecium


    50.In which of the following, an unfertilized egg develops into new offspring?
    (a) Vegetative propagation
    (b) Spore formation
    (c) Parthenogenesis
    (d) Budding

    51.Binary fission does not take place in:
    (a) Echinoderms
    (b) Bacteria
    (c) Planaria
    (d) Hydra


    52.Which of the following also reproduces through fragmentation?
    (a) Planaria
    (b) Hydra
    (c) Bacterium
    (d) Yeast


    53.Which generation is haploid?
    (a) Sporophyte
    (b) Endospore
    (c) Gametophyte
    (d) Sporophyte and Endospore


    54.Female reproductive part of flower is:
    (a) Androecium
    (b) Calyx
    (c) Corolla
    (d) Gynoecium


    55.Ferns reproduce by:
    (a) Corms
    (b) Rhizome
    (c) Tubers
    (d) Bulb


    56.In most plants, Sporophyte is:
    (a) Small in size
    (b) Dominant
    (c) Independent
    (d) Dominant and independent


    57.Spermatids are:
    (a) Motile
    (b) Active
    (c) Non-motile
    (d) Sperms


    58.Which forms egg cell?
    (a) Follicles
    (b) Primary oocytes
    (c) First polar body
    (d) Secondary oocyte


    59.Placenta is a structure which belongs to:
    (a) birds
    (b) mammals
    (c) reptiles
    (d) amphibians


    60.UNFPA works in how many countries?
    (a) 150
    (b) 160
    (c) 140
    (d) 100


    61.Ovary change into after ripen:

    (a) Into seed
    (b) Into fruit
    (c) Into flower
    (d) Into nectar


    62.Sperms and fluid collectively called:
    (a) Hormones
    (b) Semen
    (c) Follicle
    (d) Scrotum


    63.In which of the following animal groups, external fertilization takes place;
    (a) Reptiles
    (b) Amphibians
    (c) Birds
    (d) Mammals


    64.Pollen grains are produced in anther. of flower by:
    (a) Meiosis
    (b) Mitosis
    (c) Binary fission
    (d) Multiple fission


    65.Rhizopus reproduces by:
    (a) Binary Fission
    (b) Budding
    (c) Spore formation
    (d) Parthenogenesis

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    Class 10 Biology Chapter-14 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

    He purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible, no matter how hard we try. Either way, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions to improve the learning material. Our efforts are meant to benefit the entire community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends because “Sharing is Caring.”

  • 10th Class biology Chapter 13: Support and Movement

    10th Class Chapter 13: Support and Movement Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 13 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 13 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q.1 Write the two characteristics of animals?
    Ans.
     Movement and locomotion are the characteristics of animals.


    Q.2 What do you mean by movement?
    Ans.
     Movement is a general term meaning, the act of changing place or position by entire body or by its parts.


    Q.3 How many types of movement are?
    Ans.
     There are two types of movement:
    i. Movements of body parts
    ii. Locomotion


    Q.4 What do you mean by locomotion?
    Ans.
     Locomotion is the movement of an animal as a whole from one place to another.


    Q.5 What is sternum?
    Ans: 
    Chest bone is called sternum.


    Q.6 What do you know about osteoarthritis?
    Ans: 
    It is due to degeneration in cartilage present at joints or due to decrease in lubricant production at joints. In this arthritis, fusion of the bones at joint may occur and joints may become totally immoveable.


    Q.7 What is Rheumatoid arthritis? Or Write down causes of Rheumatoid Arthritis, also give its two symptons.
    Ans:
     It involves the inflammation of the membranes at joints. Its symptoms are fatigue, low grade fever, pain and stiffness of joints.


    Q.8 What do you mean by “Exoskeleton”?
    Ans.
     The skeleton system of some invertebrates e.g. arthropods are at the outside of the body, and are called exoskeleton.


    Q.9 What is skeleton? Define briefly.
    Ans.
     Skeleton system or skeleton is defined as the framework of hard, articulated structure that provides physical support, attachment for skeletal muscles and protection for the bodies of animals.


    Q.10 What do you mean by endoskeleton?
    Ans.
     Like other vertebrates, the human skeleton is on the inside of body and is called endoskeleton.


    Q.11 What is the role of skeletal system?
    Ans.
     The big functions of skeletal system are protection, support and movement of a body. Skeleton works very closely with the muscular system to help us in movement. Similarly skeleton also provides protection to many internal organs e.g. skull protects brain and vertebral column. It also provides the main support to our body mass.


    Q.12 What do you know about bone and cartilage?
    Ans. 
    Bone and cartilage are types of connective tissues in animals. Most connective tissue contains collagen fibers in a matrix. Cartilage is dense clear firm connective tissue while bone is hardest connective tissues.


    Q.13 Define cartilage. Write names of its two types.
    Ans. 
    Definition:
    Cartilage is a dense, clear blue-white firm connective tissue (but less strong than bone).
    Names of two types:
    1.Hyaline Cartilage
    2.Elastic Cartilage


    Q.14 What are the cells of cartilage called?
    Ans.
     The cells of cartilage are called chondrocytes.


    Q.15 Where the chondrocyte lies?
    Ans. Each chondrocyte lies in a fluid space called lacuna, present in the matrix of cartilage.


    Q.16 How many types of cartilage are there?
    Ans.
     There are three types of cartilage:
    i. Hyaline cartilage
    ii. Elastic cartilage
    iii. Fibrous cartilage


    Q.17 What are tendons and ligaments?
    Ans.
     Tendons and ligaments are connective tissues that contain tightly packed collagen fibers. Tendons are tough bands and attach muscles to bones. Ligaments are flexible bands and join one bone to another at joints.


    Q.18 What do you know about Hyaline cartilage?
    Ans.
     Hyaline cartilage is a strong yet flexible. It is found covering the ends of the long bones, in the nose, larynx, trachea and bronchial tubes.


    Q.19 What is Elastic cartilage?
    Ans.
     Elastic cartilage is similar in structure to hyaline cartilage. It yaline is also quite strong but has elasticity due to a network of elastic fibers in addition to collagen fibers. It is found in epiglottis, pinna etc.


    Q.20 What is fibrous cartilage?
    Ans. 
    Fibrous cartilage is very tough and less flexible due to large number of thick collagen fibers present in knitted form. It is found in intervertebral dics.


    Q.21 What is a Bone?
    Ans.
     Bone is a hardest connective tissue in body. Working Bones not only move, support and protect the various parts of body but also produce red and white blood cells and store minerals.


    Q.22 What are compact bones and spongy bones?
    Ans.
     The hard outer layer of a bone is called compact bone while the interior of bone is soft and porous called spongy bone.


    Q.23 What matter does bone contain?
    Ans. 
    Spongy bone contains blood vessels and bone marrow. Matrix of bones contain collagen, calcium and phosphate. Bone also contain different types of cells.


    Q.24 With how many bones babies are born.
    Ans. 
    Babies are born with about 300 soft bones. Some of these bones later fuse together, so the adult skeleton has 206 hard bones.


    Q.25 What are mature bone cells called?
    Ans.
     The mature bone cells are called osteocytės.


    Q.26 Who was Andreas Vesalius? What do you know about him?
    Ans.
     Andreas Vesalius is honoured for developing modern anatomical studies. He was born in Brussels, Belgium. He made many discoveries in anatomy based on studies made by dissection of human dead bodies. His book contained the most accurate depictions of the whole skeleton and muscles of the human body.


    Q.27 What are the components of human skeleton?
    Ans.
     The 206 bones in the adult human skeleton are organized into a longitudinal axis i.e. axial
    skeleton, to which appendicular skeleton is attached.


    Q.28 How many bones are present in axial skeleton? Give detail.
    Ans.
     Axial skeleton consists of the 80 bones in the head and trunk of body. It is composed of five parts:-
    i. Skull contains 22 bones out of which 8 are cranial bones (enclosing the brain) and 14 are facial bones.
    ii. There are 6 middle ear ossicles (3 in each ear).
    iii. There is also a hyoid bone in neck.
    iv. Vertebral column contains 33 bones (vertebrae).
    v. The chest is made of a chest bone called sternum and 24 (12 pairs) ribs.


    Q.29 How many bones are there in appendicular skeleton?
    Ans. i. Appendicular skeleton is composed of 126 bones.
    ii. Pectoral (shoulder) girdle is made of 4 bones.
    iii. Arms have six (06) bones.
    iv. Both hands have 54 bones.
    v. Pelvic girdle (hips) has 2 bones.
    vi. Legs have 06 bones.
    vii. Both feet have 54 bones.


    Q.30 Describe upper and lower jaw in mammals and vertebrates?
    Ans.
     The upper jaw is fixed with skull and is composed of two bones. The lower jaw is mobile and articulates with the skull. In lower vertebrates, the lower jaw is made up of more than one bone while in mammals it is made of single bone.


    Q.31 How mammals improve hearing?
    Ans. 
    During evolution, mammals modified the lower jaw bones and incorporated four of them into the middle ear (in the form of malleus and incus in both ears). This adaptation proved beneficial for mammals. Lower jaw with single bone is stronger and the malleus and incus also improve hearing.


    Q.32 What is a joint?
    Ans.
     A joint is the location at which two or more bones make contact. They allow movement and provide mechanical support.


    Q.33 At which basis, joints can be classified?
    Ans.
     Joints can be classified on the basis of degree of movement they allow.


    Q.34 What do you know about immoveable or fixed joints?
    Ans. 
    Such joints allow no movements e.g. the joint between the skull bones.


    Q.35 What do you know about slightly moveable joints?
    Ans. 
    Such joints allow slight movements e.g. joints between the vertebrae.


    Q.36 What do you know about moveable joints?
    Ans.
     They allow a variety of movements e.g. shoulder joint, hip joint, elbow joint, knee joint etc.


    Q.37 What are the main types of moveable joints?
    Ans.
     The main types of moveable joints are:
    (i) Hinge joints
    (ii) Ball-and-socket joints


    Q.38 Define Hinge joints and give one example.
    Ans.
     Hinge joints move back and forth like the hinge on a door and allow movements in one plane only.
    Example
    The knee and elbow are hinge joints.


    Q.39 What are ball-and-socket joints?
    Ans.
     Ball and socket joints allow movement in all directions.
    Example:
    Hip and Shoulder joints.


    Q.40 What would have happened if neck joint were a ball-and-socket joint?
    Ans.
     Then we can move freely our neck in all directions.


    Q.41 What is the role of tendons and Ligaments tissues?
    Ans.
     Role of Tendons
    Tendons are tough bands and attach muscles to bones. When a muscle contracts, tendon exerts a pulling force on the attached bone, which moves as a result.
    Role of Ligaments
    Ligaments are strong but flexible bands and join one bone to another at joints. They prevent dislocation of bones at joints.


    Q.42 Differentiate between origin and insertion of a skeletal muscle.
    Ans. 
    Origin
    One end of a skeletal muscle is always attached with some immoveable bone. This end of muscle is called as origin.
    Insertion
    The other end of muscle which is attached with a moveable bone is called as insertion.


    Q.43 What do you know about “Antagonists”?
    Ans. 
    Skeletal muscles are usually in pairs of antagonists. In an antagonistic pair, both muscles do opposite jobs.


    Q.44 What is meant by antagonism?
    Ans.
     When one muscle contracts, the other relaxes and this phenomenon is known as antagonism.

    Q.45 What is meant by “Flexor” muscle and Flexion?
    Ans. When a muscle contracts and bends a joint, it is known as flexor muscle and the movement is called as flexion. Biceps is an example of flexor muscle.


    Q.46 What is meant by extensor muscle and extension?
    Ans. When a muscle contracts and straightens the joint, it is known as extensor muscle and the movement is called extension.
    Example
    Triceps is an example of the extensor muscle.


    Q.47 Which point of attachment is pulled when a muscle contracts?
    Ans.
     When muscle contracts, it pulls the moveable bone (at insertion).


    Q.48 Describe briefly about osteoporosis?
    Ans.
     Osteoporosis is a disorder of skeletal system. It is a bone disease in adults, especially in old people. It is more common in old women. In osteoporosis, there is a decrease in the density of bones due to loss of calcium and phosphorus.


    Q.49 What is a function of estrogen?
    Ans.
     The function of estrogen is to deposit minerals in bones. When the reproductive cycle stops in females, not enough estrogen is secreted.


    Q.50 Describe Arthritis. Write the names of its types.
    Ans. 
    Arthritis means “inflammation in joints”. It is also very common in old age and in women.
    Symptoms
    Pain and stiffness in joints particularly in the weight bearing joints e.g. hip and ankle joints.
    Treatment
    Pain killer and anti-inflammatory medicines are supposed to decrease the symptoms.
    Types
    i. Osteo-arthritis
    ii. Rheumatoid arthritis
    iii. Gout


    Q.51 Differentiate between cartilage and bone? (Board, 2013)
    Ans.
     Cartilage is a dense clear, blue white, firm connective tissues. It is found covering important body parts. e.g., nose, epiglottis, trachea etc. Bones are the hard connective tissue providing movement, support and protection to various body parts.


    Q.52 What is the role of skeleton in support and movement?
    Ans.
     Skeleton provides protection to internal organs e.g. skull protects brain and support to body mass and can move the body by muscles.


    Q.53 What are biceps and triceps?
    Ans:
     Biceps is a flexor muscle on the front of the upper arm bone while Triceps is an extensor muscle on the back of arm.


    Q.54 What is chondrocyte?
    Ans:
     The cells of cartilage are called chondrocyte.


    Q.55 What are cranial bones?
    Ans:
     The bones which enclose the brain are called cranial bones. They are eight in number.


    Q.56 What is Gout?
    Ans: 
    It is characterized by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in moveable joints. It generally attacks the toe joints.

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    MCQs

    1.Find the ball-and-socket joint;
    (a) Joint in the finger bones
    (b) Joint of neck and skull bones
    (c) Joint at elbow
    (d) Joint at pelvic girdle and leg bones


    2.All these are the parts of axial skeleton of humans except:

    (a) Ribs
    (b) Sternum
    (c) Shoulder girdle
    (d) Vertebral column


    3.The disorders in which there is an accumulation of uric acid in joints:
    (a) Gout
    (b) Rheumatoid arthritis
    (c) Osteoporosis
    (d) Osteoarthritis


    4.What is correct about tendons?

    (a) Tendons are flexible and they join muscles with bones SJA
    (b) Tendons are non-elastic and they join bones with bones
    (c) Tendons are non-elastic and they join muscles with bones
    (d) Tendons are flexible and they join muscles with muscles

    5.How many bones make our skúll?
    (a) 14
    (c) 24
    (b) 22
    (d) 26


    6.What are the main components of a bone?
    (a) Marrow, spongy bone, wax
    (b) Marrow, compact bone, wax
    (c) Compact bone and marrow.
    (d) Compact bone, spongy bone, marrow


    7.What do some bones produce?
    (a) mucous
    (b) hormones
    (c) oxygen
    (d) blood cells

    8.How would you define skeletal system?
    (a) All the bones in body
    (b) All the muscles and tendons
    (c) All the body’s organs, both soft and hard tissues.
    (d) All the bones in body and the tissues that connect them


    9.Find the INCORRECT statement:
    (a) Bone is where most blood cells are made
    (b) Bone serves as a storehouse for various minerals
    (c) Bone is a dry and non-living supporting structure
    (d) Bone protects and supports the body and its organs


    10.The purpose of rib cage is to:

    (a) Protect the stomach
    (b) Protect the spinal cord
    (c) Protect the heart and lungs
    (d) Provide an object to which the lungs can attach


    11.There are types of joints.
    (a) 2
    (c) 4
    (b) 3
    (d) 5


    12.The skeletal system outside the body is called;
    (a) endoskeleton
    (b) exoskeleton
    (c) normal skeleton
    (d) Exoskeleton & Endoskeleton


    13.In our body skeleton works very
     closely with the system.
    (a) Muscular
    (b) Nervous
    (c) Endocrine
    (d) All of these


    14.Babies are born with about soft bones.
    (a) 206
    (b) 250
    (c) 300
    (d) 350


    15.Vesalius was born in;
    (a) Brussels
    (b) London
    (c) Birmingham
    (d) Sidney

    16.body. is the longest bone in our
    (a) Arm
    (b) Leg
    (c) Thigh
    (d) Foot


    17.body is the smallest bone in our
    (a) Thigh
    (b)Stapes
    (c) Ankle
    (d) Knee-cap


    18.Which joints allow no movement?
    (a) Moveable joints
    (b) Slightly moveable joints
    (c) Immoveable joints
    (d) None of these


    19.Muscles can only;
    (a) Contract
    (c) Expand
    (b) Push
    (d) All of above


    20.Pair of skeletal muscles are called:

    (a) Extensor
    (b) Flexor
    (c) Antagonistic
    (d) None of these


    21.When a muscle contracts, the point of attachment which is pulled is called
    (a) Origin
    (b) Insertion
    (c) Origin and Insertion
    (d) None


    22.When the reproductive cycle stops in female, produced. hormone is less

    (a) Androgen
    (b) Esterogen
    (c) Insulin
    (d) none of these


    23.In gout immoveable joints. is accumulated in

    (a) Glucose
    (b) urea
    (c) Uric acid
    (d) Ammonia


    24.Inflammation of membrane at joints is called;
    (a) Osteoarthrits
    (b) Rheumatoid arthritis
    (c) Arthritis
    (d) Gout


    25.joint move only in one plane.
    (a) Ball & socket
    (b) Hinge joint
    (c) Moveable joint
    (d) Slightly moveable joints


    26.at joints. prevents dislocation of bones
    (a) Ligament
    (b) Tendons
    (c) Salts
    (d) Joint


    27.Bone can store;
    (a) Urea
    (b) Salts
    (c) Uric acid
    (d) Minerals


    28.Cranial bones are;
    (a) 8
    (b) 10
    (c) 12
    (d) 22


    29.Bones which enclose brain are called;
    (a) Cranial bones
    (b) Cervical bones.
    (c) Vertebrae
    (d) None of above


    30.Lacuna is present in the of cartilage.
    (a) Bone
    (b) Matrix
    (c) Collagen
    (d) Cartilage


    31.Disease of bones in which there is a decrease in the density of the bones due to loss of calcium and phosphorus is:
    (a) Osteoporosis
    (b) Osteoarthritis
    (c) Rheumatoid arthritis
    (d) Gout


    32.Which allows movement in all directions:

    (a) Shoulder & Knee Joints
    (b) Hip & Elbow Joints
    (c) Hip & Shoulder Joints
    (d) Elbow. & Knees Joints


    33.The bending of arm at elbow is:
    (a) Relaxation
    (c) Flexion
    (b) Contraction
    (d) Extension


    34.Vertebral Column consists of following number of bones:

    (a) 10
    (b) 20
    (c) 23
    (d) 33


    35.Which one cannot show movement from one place to an other place?
    (a) Bacteria
    (b) Animals
    (c) Plants
    (d) Human beings


    36.Place where two or more bones meet at a point is called

    (a) Origin
    (b) Joint
    (c) Insertion
    (d) Tendons


    37.The muscle of the arm at elbow joint causes straightening of the arm, it is called:
    (a) Extension
    (b) Extensor
    (c) Flexion
    (d) Flexor


    38.Fore limbs are the part of:
    (a) Appendicular skeleton
    (b) Axial skeleton
    (c) Exoskeleton
    (d) Exoskeleton and Endoskeleton


    39.Osteoporosis is due to deficiency of
    (a) Carbon
    (b) Nitrogen
    (c) Calcium
    (d) Phosphorus


    40.The example of slightly moveable joint is:
    (a) Joint of elbow
    (b) Joint of knee
    (c) Joint of shoulder
    (d) Joints of vertebral column


    41.Pain and stiffness in weight bearing joints are symptoms of:

    (a) Arthritis
    (b) Gout
    (c) Rheumatoid arthritis
    (d) Osteoporosis


    42.How many bones are present in right hand.

    (a) 56
    (b) 43
    (c) 28
    (d) 27


    43.Which of the following provides main support to our body mass?

    (a) Skull
    (b) Body.
    (c) Vertebral column
    (d) Spinal cord


    44.How many bones are present in middle ear?
    (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 5
    (d) 6


    45.Fatigue, low grade fever, pain and stiffness in joints are symptoms of:
    (a) Arthritis
    (b) Osteoarthiritis
    (c) Gout
    (d) Rheumatoid Arthritis


    46.Blood vessels do not enter:

    (a) Bone
    (b) Matrix
    (c) Cartilage
    (d) Lacuna


    47.Fibrous cartilage is present in:
    (a) Pinna
    (b) Nose
    (c) Intervertebral discs
    (d) Epiglottis


    48.How many ribs are there in man?
    (a) 22
    (b) 12
    (c) 24
    (d) 33


    49.Movement of an animal as a whole is:

    (a) stimulus
    (b) response
    (c) locomotion
    (d) movement


    50.Mark the False statement about bones:
    (a) Contain chondrocytes
    (b) Ability to store minerals
    (c) Contains blood vessels
    (d) Hardest connective tissue


    51.Which of the following stores minerals?
    (a) Bone
    (b) Cartilage
    (c) Cartilage and bone
    (d) Joints


    52.Pelvic Girdle contains bones:
    (a) 33
    (b) 02
    (c) 54
    (d) 12


    53.Which are tough bands?

    (a) Flexors
    (b) Ligaments
    (c) Tendons
    (d) Insertions


    54.Deposition of uric acid in joints is due to:

    (a) Osteoarthritis
    (b) Gout
    (c) Osteoporosis
    (d) Rheumatoid Arthritis


    55.An example of ball and socket joint is:
    (a) Elbow joint
    (b) Shoulder joint
    (c) knee joint
    (d) Finger joint

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    Class 10 Biology Chapter-13 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

    He purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible, no matter how hard we try. Either way, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions to improve the learning material. Our efforts are meant to benefit the entire community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends because “Sharing is Caring.”

  • 10th Class biology Chapter 12: Coordination and Control

    10th Class Chapter 12: Coordination and Control Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 12 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 12 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q.1 Identify the two types of co-ordination in living organisms.
    Ans. 
    There are two types of coordination in organisms:
    (i)Nervous coordination brought about by nervous system.
    (ii) Chemical coordination brought about by endocrine system.


    Q2. What are the main components of coordination? (Board 2013)
    Ans.
     A coordinated action has five components:
    (i) Stimulus
    (ii) Receptor
    (iii) Coordinator
    (iv) Effector
    (v) Response


    Q3. Define reflex action and reflex arc.
    Ans
    . Reflex action
    When the involuntary response produced by the CNS is very quick, such response is called reflex action.
    Reflex are
    The pathway followed by the nerve impulse for producing a reflex action is called reflex arc.


    Q4. Trace the path of a nerve impulse in case of a reflex action.
    Ans.
     Stimulus Receptor Coordinator Effector Response


    Q5. Describe the pupil reflex in dim and bright light. 12(053)
    Ans.
     Pupil constricts in bright light when the circular muscles of iris contract. Similarly,
    pupil dilates in dim light when the radial muscles of iris contract.


    Q6. How would you associate the role of vitamin A with vision and effects on retina?
    Ans.
     Rods contain a pigment called rhodopsin. When light falls on rhodopsin it breaks for generating a nerve impulse. In the absence of light, the break down products are again converted into rhodopsin. Body synthesizes rhodopsin from vitamin A and that is why the deficiency of vitamin A causes poor night vision.


    Q77. Define the terms hormone and endocrine system.
    Ans.
     Hormone
    A hormone is a specific messenger molecule synthesized and secreted by an endocrine gland.
    Endocrine system
    The system which regulates the activities of growth, reproduction, maintenance of glucose concentration in blood, reabsorption of water in kidneys is called endocrine system.


    Q8. What is hypothalamus?
    Ans.
     Introduction
    It lies above midbrain and just below thalamus. In humans it is roughly the size of an almond.
    Functions
    (i) It links the nervous system and endocrine system..
    (ii) It controls the secretions of pituitary gland.
    (iii) It also controls feelings such as rage, pain, pleasure and sorrow.


    Q9. What is iodopsin?
    Ans. 
    Cone cells in retina of eye contains a pigment known as iodopsin. Three types of cones have specific iodopsin. Each cone helps in recognizing three primary colours.ie, red, blue and green.


    Q10. Define islets of Langerhans.
    Ans. 
    Some portions of pancreas serve as ductless (endocrine) gland. This portion contains groups of endocrine cells referred to as islets of Langerhans. These islets secrete two hormones i.e. insulin and glucagon which maintain amount of glucose in the blood.


    Q11. What is nerve impulse?
    Ans.
     In nervous coordination, brain and spinal cord receive information and send messages through neurons in the form of nerve impulses. A nerve impulse is wave of electrochemical changes that travels along the length of neurons.


    Q12. What is tympanum?
    Ans.
     In the ear, auditory canal ends in tympanum (eardrum). This thin membrane separates external ear from middle ear.


    Q13. What is vitreous humour?
    Ans.
     The iris divides the cavity of eye into two chambers. The posterior chamber is between iris and retina and contains a jelly-like fluid known as vitreous humour.


    Q14. Define Acromegaly.
    Ans.
     Abnormal growth due to excessive production of growth hormone after growing age, the internal organs and body extremities alone grow large and affected persons have large hands, feet and jawbones.


    Q15. Define Antidiuretic hormone.
    Ans.
     The hormone of the posterior pituitary which promotes the reabsorption of water in renal tubules.


    Q16. Define Aqueous humour.
    Ans. 
    The fluid present in the anterior chamber of the eye i.e. between the cornea and the iris.


    Q17. Define Axon.
    Ans.
     neuron. A long fibre of neuron that carries nerve impulse away from the cell body of a


    Q18. Define Cell body.
    Ans.
     The part of the nerve cell that contains nucleus and cytoplasm.


    Q19. Define Cerebellum.
    Ans. 
    The part of the hindbrain which controls muscle movements.


    Q20. Define Cerebral hemispheres.
    Ans.
     The division of the cerebrum of the brain into two parts called cerebral hemispheres.


    Q21. Define Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
    Ans.
     The fluid in the ventricles of the brain and in the central canal of the spinal cord is called CSF.


    Q22. Define Cerebrum.
    Ans.
     The largest part of the forebrain; controls many sensory and motor functions.


    Q23. Define Cochlea.
    Ans.
     The part of the inner ear; consists of three ducts wrapped in the form of a coiled tube, contains sound receptors.


    Q24. Define Colour blindness.
    Ans.
     Genetic disorder in which person fails to recognize the basic colours; blue, green and red.


    Q25. Define Cones.
    Ans.
     The photosensitive cells in the retina of the eye; sensitive to bright light and so distinguish different colours.


    Q26. What is choroid?
    Ans.
     The middle layer of eye is called choroid. It contains blood vessels and gives the eye a dark colour which prevents disruptive reflections within eye.


    Q27. Define Cornea.
    Ans.
     The transparent part of sclera that forms in the front of the eye through which light enters the eye.


    Q28. What are Cranial nerves?
    Ans.
     Nerves that arise from or lead to the brain.


    Q29. Define dendrites.
    Ans.
     Short and branched projections of neuron’s cell body which transmit nerve impulse towards cell body are called Dendrites.


    Q30. What is Diabetes mellitus?
    Ans.
     More than normal level of glucose in blood, a condition caused by insufficient concentration of insulin in blood, is called diabetes mellitus.


    Q31. What is the cause of dwarfism?
    Ans.
     Less than normal body growth; a condition caused when growth hormone is insufficient during the growing age.


    Q32. What is Ear drum or Tympanic membrane?
    Ans.
     Tympanic membrane; A membrane stretched across the inner end of the auditory canal of the ear is called eardrum.


    Q33. What are Effectors?
    Ans.
     The parts of the coordination system that respond when stimulated by nerve impulses or hormones.


    Q34. Define Endocrine gland.
    Ans.
     A ductless gland produces secretions which release directly into the blood stream is called endocrine gland.


    Q35. What is Epilepsy?.
    Ans.
     A nervous disorder, characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures (convulsions).


    Q36. What is Epinephrine?
    Ans. 
    It is also called adrenaline or emergency hormone it is secreted by adrenal gland.


    Q37. Define Estrogen.
    Ans.
     A hormone secreted by the ovaries; promotes development of female secondary sex characteristics and regulates the reproductive cycle.


    Q38. Define Eustachian tube.
    Ans.
     The tube between middle ear and the nasal cavity that equalizes the pressure on both sides of the eardrum.


    Q39. Define Exocrine gland.
    Ans.
     A gland that discharges its secretion into a duct e.g. digestive glands, skin glands.


    Q40. What is Ganglion?
    Ans. 
    The aggregation of the cell bodies of neurons is called ganglion.

    Q41. Define Grey matter.
    Ans.
     The nervous tissue containing cell bodies and non myelinated processes of the neurons.


    Q42. Define Hormone.
    Ans.
     A substance that is secreted by an endocrine gland directly into blood and that produces a specific effect on a particular tissue. E.g., vasopressin, oxytocin, thyroxin etc.


    Q43. What is Hypermetropia?
    Ans. 
    The condition in which a person is not able to see nearer objects clearly; the eyeball shortens and image is formed behind the retina.


    Q44. What is Hyperthyroidism?
    Ans.
     The over-production of thyroxin results in increase of energy production, increased heart-beat, frequent sweating and shivering of hands.


    Q45. What is Insulin?
    Ans.
     The hormone produced by the Islets of Langerhans; lowers the blood glucose level is called insulin.


    Q46. What is difference between sensory neurons and interneurons?
    Ans.
     Sensory Neurons:
    Conduct sensory information (nerve impulse) from receptors towards the CNS, sensory neurons have one dendrites and one axon.
    Interneurons
    The neurons present in the brain and spinal cord are called Interneurons. They receive information, interpret them and stimulate motor neurons. They have many dendrites and axons.


    Q47. Define Iris.he life one formed by the bending of the choroid behind the one ?

    Ans. A muscular ring formed by the bending of the choroid behind the cornea of the eye.


    Q48. What is Medulla oblongata?
    Ans.
     Part of the hindbrain; on the top of the spinal cord; controls breathing, heart rate, blood pressure and many reflexes.


    Q49. What are Meninges?
    Ans.
     Three layers around the brain and the spinal cord; protect them and provide nutrients and oxygen through their capillaries.


    Q50. Define Mixed nerves.
    Ans.
     The nerves containing axons of both the sensory and motor neurons are called mixed nerves. e.g. all spinal nerves are mixed in nature.


    Q51. Define Motor nerves.
    Ans.
     The nerves which contain the axons of motor neurons only are called motor nerves.


    Q52. Define Myelin sheath.
    Ans.
     The insulating sheath around the axons of some neurons is called myelin sheath.


    Q53. What is Myopia.
    Ans.
     The condition in which a person is not able to see distant objects clearly; happens due to elongation of the eyeball and image is formed in front of retina.


    Q54. Define Nerve.
    Ans.
     The union of several axons that are enveloped by a covering made of lipid.


    Q55. Define Neuron.
    Ans.
     Nerve cell or neuron the unit of the nervous system; able to conduct nerve impulses is called neuron.


    Q56. What are nodes of Ranvier?
    Ans.
     The non-myelinated points between the areas of myelin on the axons of neurons.


    Q57. Define Optic disc.
    Ans.
     It is also called blind spot. It is a point on the retina of the eye where the optic nerve enters the retina; no photosensitive cells exist at this point.


    Q58. What is Oxytocin?
    Ans.
     The hormone secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland; stimulates the contraction of uterus walls in females for child birth; necessary for ejection of milk from the breasts.


    Q59. What is Paralysis?
    Ans.
     Complete loss of function by one or more muscle groups due to damage in the nervous system is called Paralysis.


    Q60. Define Parathormone.
    Ans.
     This hormone of the parathyroid glands increases the level of calcium ions in the blood.


    Q61. Define Parathyroid gland.
    Ans.
     The endocrine glands located on the posterior sides of the thyroid gland secretes parathormone.


    Q62. Define Pituitary gland.
    Ans.
     The endocrine gland attached to the hypothalamus that controls many other endocrine glands in the body.


    Q63. What are Pons?
    Ans.
     Part of the hindbrain; present on top of the medulla; assists the medulla in controlling breathing and serves as a connection between the cerebellum and the spinal cord.


    Q64. Define Progesterone.
    Ans.
     A hormone secreted by ovaries that maintains the uterus during pregnancy is called progesterone.


    Q65. Define Pupil?
    Ans.
     The opening in the centre of the iris of the eye is called pupil.


    Q66. Define Receptors?
    Ans. 
    The organs, tissues or cells which detect particular type of stimuli. e.g. eyes, ear etc.


    Q67. What is Reflex arc?
    Ans. 
    The nerve pathway over which the nerve impulses travel in a reflex action.


    Q68. Define Retina?
    Ans.
     The innermost and the sensitive layer in the eye is called retina.


    Q69. Define Rhodopsin.
    Ans.
     A pigment present in the rods of the retina.


    Q70. What are Rods?
    Ans. 
    The photosensitive cells present in the retina of the eye sensitive to dim light.


    Q71. What are Schwann cells?
    Ans.
     The supporting cells around neurons, form the myelin sheath.


    Q72. Define Sclera.
    Ans. 
    The tough, white outer layer of the eye which protects the eye.


    Q73. What are Semicircular canals?
    Ans.
     The three canals present posterior to the vestibule in the inner ear.


    Q74. What are sensory nerves?
    Ans. 
    The nerves which contain only the axons of sensory neurons:


    Q75. Define Somatotrophin.
    Ans. 
    It is also called growth hormone. A hormone of the anterior lobe of pituitary gland promotes the growth of the body.


    Q76. What are Spinal nerves?
    Ans.
     The nerves which arise from the spinal cord.


    Q77. Define Suspensory ligament.
    Ans.
     The ring that attaches the lens of the eye to the ciliary muscles.


    Q78.. What is Testosterone?
    Ans.
     The male sex hormone secreted by testis; stimulates the development of male reproductive system and the male secondary sex characteristics.


    Q79. Define Thalamus.
    Ans.
     The part of the forebrain; serves as a relay centre between various parts of the brain and spinal cord.


    Q80. What is Thyroid?
    Ans.
     The endocrine gland located in front of the trachea; secretes hormones, thyroxin and calcitonin.


    Q81. Define Thyroxin.
    Ans.
     The hormone of the thyroid gland increases the breakdown of food and release of energy; also responsible for the growth of body.


    Q82. What is Vasopressin?
    Ans.
     Antidiuretic hormone; the hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland; responsible for the reabsorption of water from renal tubules of the nephron.


    Q83. What is Vestibule?
    Ans.
     Part of the inner ear, helps to maintain balance of the body.


    Q84. Define Brain stem.
    Ans. 
    The medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain connects the rest of brain to spinal cord. This is called brain stem.


    Q85. What is nerve-growth factor?
    Ans.
     Unlike ordinary cells, mature neurons never divide. But a protein called nerve-growth factor promotes the regeneration of broken nerve cells. The degenerating brain cells could be repaired by using embryonic stem cells.


    Q86. What do you know about deafness?
    Ans. Introduction

    It is a state in which hearing is not possible.
    Causes
    (i) The defect of ear drum, cochlea, middle ear, ossicles or auditory nerve may cause deafness.
    (ii) Infection in Eustachian tube may spread to middle ear too.
    (iii)Ear drum may be damaged by an infection in auditory canal.
    (iv) Excessive noise, strong blows on cheek, pointed objects entering auditory canal and attack from insects may also affect hearing.


    Q87. How thundering and lightning is produced?
    Ans. A thunderstorm is characterized by the presence of lightning and a thunder.
    (a) Lightning
    The lightning is caused by an electrical charge due to the movement of water droplets or crystals carried by wind. free im
    (b) Thunder
    The sudden increase in pressure and temperature from lightening produces a sound of thunder.


    Q88. Why the flash of lightning is followed after some seconds by a roar of thunder?
    Ans. This time difference is due to the fact that sound travels slower than light.


    Q89. What are the functions of hormones in animals?
    Ans. Following are the functions of hormones in animals:
    (i) Stepwise process of metamorphosis Cell division in invertebrates
    (ii) Cell division in invertebrates
    (iii) Migration in birds


    Q90. Why the urine output is low in summer?
    Ans. Due to increased sweating, the water level of blood is lowered. As a result, pituitary gland releases more Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) into blood which lowers the amount of urine.


    Q91. What is Tetany?
    Ans. It is marked by sharp flexion of the wrist and ankle joints, muscle twitching, cramps and convulsions. It is due to decreased blood calcium level.


    Q92. What is BGC test?
    Ans. The amount of glucose in blood is measured by BGC (Blood Glucose Concentration test). It is used to diagnose diabetes. The blood glucose concentration is maintained at the rate of 80 to 120 mg per 100 ml of blood.


    Q93. Why the eyes of cat and dog shine in the night?
    Ans. The reason for this is the presence of tapetum behind the eye which is a layer capable of reflecting light.


    Q94. Why Owl is not able to see during day time?
    Ans. The reason for this is the deficiency of cones which receive and sense the bright light. But the presence of more rods gives it greater power of vision during night. All animals that search for prey during night have this characteristic.


    Q95. What do you know about lightening and thunder?
    Ans. Lightening is caused by an electrical charge due to the movement of water droplets or crystals carried by the wind. The sudden increase in pressure and temperature from. lightening produces rapid expansion of the air. This expansion of air produces a sound of thunder.


    Q96. Define coordination and give example.
    Ans. Definition: The coordination is developed when body works as one unit in which its different organs and systems co-operates and work in harmony with each other.
    Example:
    When we are writing something, our hands and fingers work in collaboration with our muscles, eyes, thoughts etc. and then very intricate movements result.


    Q97. Write names of three main parts of brain.
    Ans. Three main parts of brain are:
    a. Forebrain
    b. Midbrain
    c. Hindbrain


    Q98. What is salutatory impulse?
    Ans. In a neuron, impulses “jump’ over the areas of myelin going from node to node. Such impulses are called salutatory impulses. This increases the speed of nerve impulse.


    Q99. Define coordinators. Give an example also.
    Ans. Definition:
    These are the organs that receive information from receptors and send messages to particular organs for proper action.
    Examples:
    i. In nervous co-ordination, brain and spinal cord are coordinators.
    ii. In chemical coordination, various endocrine glands play the role of coordinators.


    Q100. Define Reflex action with example.
    Ans. Definition:
    Sometimes the involuntary action produced by the CNS is very quick. Such a response is called reflex action.
    Example
    The most common example of reflex action is the withdrawal of hand after touching a hot object

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    MCQs

    1.Processes that carry nerve impulses away from the cell body are called:
    (a) Axons
    (b) Dendrites
    (c) Synapses
    (d) Myelin sheath


    2.The portion of the nervous system that is involuntary in action:
    (a) Somatic nervous system
    (b) Dendrites
    (c) Autonomic nervous system
    (d) Sensory nervous system


    3.Which neurons are present inside the central nervous system?
    (a) Sensory neurons only
    (b) Motor neurons only
    (c) Sensory and motor neurons both
    (d) Interneurons only


    4.The part of the brain responsible for muscle movement, interpretation of the senses and the memory is the;
    (a) Pons
    (b) Medulla oblongata
    (c) Cerebrum
    (d) Cerebellum


    5.Apart from hearing, what other major body function is performed by the ear?
    (a) Hormones secretion
    (b) Body balance
    (c) Reduction in nerve pressure
    (d) All of these


    6.The myelin sheath is formed by which wrap around the axons of some neurons:
    (a) Nodes of Ranvier
    (b) Axons.
    (c) Dendrites
    (d) Schwann Cells
    7.This is not a part of the hindbrain:
    (a) Pons
    (b) Medulla oblongata
    (c) Cerebrum
    (d) Cerebellum


    8.If you look at an intact human brain, what you see the most is a large, highly convoluted outer surface.
    (a) Cerebrum
    (b) Cerebellum
    (c) pons
    (d) Medulla oblongata


    9.Insulin and glucagon are produced in the:
    (a) Hypothalamus
    (b) Anterior pituitary
    (c) Liver
    (d) Pancreas


    10.All of these are hormones except:
    (a) Insulin
    (b) Thyroxin
    (c) Glucagon
    (d) Pepsinogen


    11.The elongation of eye-ball results in:
    (a) Myopia
    (b) Blindness
    (c) Deafness
    (d) None of these


    12.The pathway followed by the nerve impulses for producing a reflex action is called:
    (a) Reflex action
    (b) Reflex arc
    (c) Neuron
    (d) Spinal cord


    13.Ali Ibn-e-Isa’s book on study of diseases and surgery of eye is:
    (a) Biology
    (b) Botany
    (c) Ophthalmology
    (d) Zoology


    14.A coordinated action has components:
    (a) 3
    (b) 4
    (c) 5
    (d) 6


    15.The organs which are specifically built to detect particular type of stimulus are called:
    (a) Receptors
    (b) Effectors
    (c) Stimuli
    (d) All of these


    16.The structural and functional unit of nervous system is;
    (a) Brain
    (b) Hormone
    (c) Neuron
    (d) Effector


    17.The nervous system consists of billions of neurons and;
    (a) Hormones
    (b) Nephrons
    (c) Neuroglial cells
    (d) Receptors


    18.Nucleus and cytoplasm of neuron is located in;
    (a) Cell body
    (b) Dendrites
    (c) Axons
    (d) Myelin sheath


    19.The sensory layer of eye is;
    (a) Cornea
    (c) Sclera
    (b) Iris
    (d) Retina


    20.The sensory part of ear is;
    (a) Succulus
    (b) Stapes
    (c) Vestibule
    (d) Cochlea


    21.Ibn-al-Haytham is famous for his book of:
    (a) Chemistry
    (b) Optics
    (c) Biology
    (d) Coordination


    22.is unable to see during day time.
    (a) Rabbit
    (b) Owl
    (c) Cat
    (d) Human


    23.Which one is the smallest bone of human body?
    (a) Malleus
    (b) Incus
    (c) Stapes
    (d) Cochlea


    24.gland is pea-shaped.
    (a) Hypothalamus
    (b) Pancreas
    (c) Pituitary
    (d) Adrenal


    25.separates the middle ear from inner ear.

    (a) Malleus
    (b) Stapes
    (c) Incus
    (d) Eustachian tube


    26.Non-Myelinated points between the myelin on an axon are:
    (a) Saltatory nerves
    (b) Nodes of Ranvier
    (c) Neuroglial cells
    (d) Schwann cells


    27.Glucagon is secreted by
    (a) Exocrine part of pancreas
    (b) Islets of Langerhans
    (c) Pituitary Gland
    (d) None of these


    28.are sensitive to dim light.
    (a) Rods
    (b) Cones
    (c) Retina
    (d) Cornea


    29.Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of in body.
    (a) Vitamin A
    (b) Iodopsin
    (c) Protein
    (d) Fats


    30.The lens found in human eye is;

    (a) Biconcave
    (b) Biconvex
    (c) Both a and b
    (d) None of these

    31.Lobe concerned with senses of hearing and smell:
    (a) Frontal
    (b) Parietal
    (c) Occipital
    (d) Temporal


    32.The largest part of the fore-brain that controls skeletal muscles, thinking, intelligence and emotions;
    (a) Cerebellum
    (b) Cerebrum
    (c) Hypothalamus
    (d) Thalamus


    33.This is not the part of hind brain:
    (a) Pons
    (b) Medulla Oblongata
    (c) Cerebrum
    (d) Cerebellum


    34.The hormone calcitonin is secreted by:

    (a) Pituitary gland
    (b) Thyroid gland
    (c) Pancreas
    (d) Adernal gland


    35.Central nervous system consists of brain and:

    (a) Effectors
    (b) Receptor’s
    (c) Nerves
    (d) Spinal cord


    36.Under the influence of which hormone of pituitary gland throxine and calcitonin is produced?
    (a) Thyroid stimulating hormone
    (b) Glucagon
    (c) Testosterone
    (d) Androgens


    37.Which part of human body plays role in balancing the body:
    (a) Eye
    (b) Ear
    (c) Nose
    (d) Teeth


    38.Female secondary sex characters are controlled by:
    (a) Estrogen
    (b) Progesterone
    (c) Testosterone
    (d) Estrogen and Progesterone


    39.Functional disorder of nervous system is:

    (a) Dwarfism
    (b) Paralysis
    (c) Epilepsy
    (d) Gigantism


    40.Father of Optics is:
    (a) Newton
    (b) Ali Ibn Isa
    (c) Ibn-al-Haytham
    (d) Al-Farabi


    41.Rods and Cones are absent in:
    (a) Optic disc
    (b) Blind spot
    (c) Retina
    (d) Optic Disc and blind spot


    42.Muscular ring formed by choroid is:

    (a) Cornea
    (b) Pupil
    (c) Iris
    (d) Sclera


    43.Pairs of Cranial nerves are:
    (a) 21
    (b) 12
    (c) 33
    (d) 3


    44.Pairs of Spinal nerves are:
    (a) 2
    (b) 33
    (c) 31
    (d) 12


    45.A connection between cerebellum and spinal cord is:
    (a) Medulla oblongata
    (b) Mid brain
    (c) Pons
    (d) Cerebrum


    46.Brain stem involves:
    (a) Medulla oblongata and Pons
    (b) Cerebrum
    (c) Mid brain
    (d) Medulla oblongata, Pons, and Mid brain


    47.Which lobe permits conscious control of skeletal muscles?

    (a) Frontal
    (b) Occipital
    (c) Parietal
    (d) Temporal


    48.Visual information is received and analysed by which lobe?
    (a) Frontal
    (b) Occipital
    (c) Temporal
    (d) Parietal

    49.Sensation of smell is created by:
    (a) Cerebrum
    (b) Cortex
    (c) Olfactory bulbs
    (d) Medulla


    50.Which lobe co-ordinates movements involved in speech?
    (a) Frontal
    (b) Parietal
    (c) Occipital
    (d) Temporal


    51.Layers of brain are called:
    (a) Cranium
    (b) Meninges
    (c) Lobes
    (d) Central canal


    52.Cerebrospinal fluid is present in:

    (a) Ventricles
    (b) Central canal
    (c) Ventricles and Central canal
    (d) Meninges


    53.Sound receptor cells are present in;
    (a) Succulus
    (b) Stapes
    (c) Vestibule
    (d) Cochlea


    54.The special neuroglial cells located at regular intervals along axons are called:

    (a) Dendrites
    (b) Myelin sheath
    (c) Schwann cells
    (d) Nodes of. Ranvier


    55.Which of the following contains sensory areas that received impulses from skin?
    (a) Frontal Lobe
    (b) Occipital Lobe
    (c) Temporal Lobe
    (d) Parietal Lobe


    56.In reflex action, which of the following acts as co-ordinator?
    (a) Brain
    (b) Neurons
    (c) Reflex Arc
    (d) Spinal Cord


    57.Progesterone is secreted by:
    (a) Pancreas
    (b) Adrenal glands
    (c) Testes
    (d) Ovaries


    58.For farsightedness the image is formed:
    (a) Behind the retina
    (b) In front of retina
    (c) On the retina
    (d) On blind spot


    59.The length of spinal cord is:
    (a) 20 cm
    (b) 30 cm
    (c) 40 cm
    (d) 50 cm


    60.A pigment Iodopsin is present in:
    (a) Rods
    (c) Cornea
    (b) Cones
    (d) Sclera

    61.Convex lens is used to rectify which problem?
    (a) Hypermetropia
    (b) Short sightedness
    (c) Night blindness
    (d) Myopia


    62.Auditory canal ends in:
    (a) Cochlea
    (b) Ear drum
    (c) Middle ear
    (d) Eustachian tube


    63.Hyperthyroidism is caused by:
    (a) Overproduction of Thyroxin
    (b) Under production of Thyroxin
    (c) Overproduction of Insulin
    (d) Overproduction of glucagon


    64.Parathormone is secreted by:
    (a) Parathyroid gland
    (b) Thyroid gland
    (c) Adrenal gland
    (d) Gonads


    65.Which hormone prepares body to overcome emergency situation?
    (a) Parathormone
    (b) Vasopressin
    (c) Thyroxin
    (d) Adrenaline


    66.The pathway which conduct impulses from CNS to effectors?
    (a) Sensory pathway
    (b) Motor pathway
    (c) Mixed pathway
    (d) Interneuron pathway


    67.In unicellular organisms, co-ordination is free co- brought about by:
    (a) Nerves
    (b) Chemicals
    (c) Brain
    (d) Brain and nerves


    68.Brain and Spinal cord examples of: are
    (a) Stimuli
    (b) Receptors
    (c) Coordinators
    (d) Effectors


    69.Endocrine glands are:
    (a) Effectors
    (b) Coordinators
    (c) Receptors
    (d) Stimuli


    70.In some parts of the body many Neurons cell bodies combine to make a group:
    (a) Nerves Tissues
    (b) Tissues
    (c) Ganglion
    (d) Muscles


    71.In Auditory Canal’s wall special glands producer:
    (a) Wax
    (b) Blood
    (c) Auditory Fluid
    (d) Nerve impulse


    72.If a new born baby feeds on mother’s milk, as a result of which production of mother’s milk will,
    (a) Decrease
    (b) Increase
    (c) Stop
    (d) Continue with intervals


    73.Which hormone is secreted in case of emergency situation:
    (a) Oxytocin
    (b) Thyroxin
    (c) Adrenaline
    (d) Calcitonin

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    Class 10 Biology Chapter-12 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

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  • 10th Class biology Chapter 11: Homeostasis

    10th Class Chapter 11: Homeostasis Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 11 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 11 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q.1 What are the major organs involved in homeostasis in human body? State the role of each organ?
    Ans.
     Human beings have highly developed organs for homeostasis which are:
    (i) Lungs
    (ii) Skin
    (iii) Kidneys
    Lungs remove excess carbon dioxide and keep it in balance. Skin performs role in maintenance of body temperature and also removes excess water and salts. Kidneys filter excess water, salts, urea, uric acid etc. from the blood and form urine.


    Q.2 What is Bowman’s capsule?
    Ans.
     One end of the renal tubule is blind and attains a cup shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule that encloses glomerulus.


    Q.3 Define Homeostasis.
    Ans.
     Homeostasis may be defined as the maintenance of the internal conditions of body in equilibrium, despite changes in the external environment e.g. the core temperature of human body remains at about 37°C despite fluctuations in the surrounding air temperature.


    Q.4 Define osmoregulation.
    Ans.
     It is defined as the maintenance of the amounts of water and salts in body fluids i.e., blood and tissue fluids.


    Q.5 Define thermoregulation.
    Ans.
     The maintenance of internal body temperature is called thermoregulation e.g., human body temperature is kept constant at 37°C..


    Q.6 Define Excretion.
    Ans. 
    The process by which metabolic wastes are eliminated from body to maintain the internal conditions at equilibrium is called excretion e.g., urea, salts of uric acid and water are eliminated out of body through excretion.


    Q.7 Differentiate between transpiration and Guttation.
    Ans
    :Transpiration
    i. It is defined as loss of water from plants surface in the form of vapours.
    ii. It occurs through stomata.
    Guttation
    i. It is defined as appearance of drops of water on the tips or edges of leaves.
    ii. It occurs through special pores called hydathodes present at leaf tips or edges.


    Q.8 What are Hydrophytes?
    Ans.
     Hydrophytes are the plants which live completely or partially submerged in fresh water e.g.
    water lilly.


    Q.9 What are Xerophytes?
    Ans.
     Xerophytes live in dry environment e.g. cacti.


    Q.10 What are Halophytes?
    Ans.
     The plants living in sea water and adapted to salty environments are called halophytes e.g.
    different sea grasses.


    Q.11 What is Hilus?
    Ans. 
    The concave side of kidney faces vertebral column. There is a depression called hilus, near the centre of the concave area of kidney. This is the area of kidney through which ureter leaves kidney and other structures including blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and nerves enter and leave kidney.


    Q.12 What are Renal Pyramids?
    Ans.
     Renal medulla consists of several cone-shaped areas called renal pyramids.


    Q.13 What is Renal pelvis?
    Ans.
     Renal pyramids project into a funnel-shaped cavity called renal pelvis which is the base of ureter.


    Q.14 What is renal corpuscle?
    Ans.
     The part of nephron which is not tubular and has two parts:
    (i) Glomerulus
    (ii) Bowman’s capsule


    Q.15 What is Glomerulus?
    Ans. 
    Glomerulus is a network of capillaries and is enclosed by a cup shaped structure called Bowman’s capscule.


    Q.16 Define renal tubule.
    Ans. 
    Tubular part of nephron which starts after Bowman’s capsule is called renal tubule. It is sub divided into following parts:
    i. Proximal convoluted tubule
    ii. Loop of Henle
    iii. Distal convoluted tubule
    iv. Collecting duct


    Q.17 What do you know about proximal convoluted tubule?
    Ans.
     First portion of renal tubule is called proximal convoluted tubule.


    Q.18 What is Loop of Henle?
    Ans.
     U-shaped part of renal tubule is called Loop of Henle.


    Q.19 What is distal convoluted tubule?
    Ans.
     Last portion of renal tubule is called distal convoluted tubule.


    Q.20 What are collecting ducts?
    Ans.
     The distal convoluted tubule of many nephrons open in a single collecting duct. Many collecting ducts join together to form several hundred papillary ducts which drain into renal pelvis.


    Q.21 What is a nephron?
    Ans. 
    The functional unit of the kidney is called nephron. There are over one million nephrons in each kidney.


    Q.22 What is pressure filtration?
    Ans.
     The first step of urine formation is pressure filtration. When blood enters the kidney via the
    renal artery it goes to many arterioles, and then to the glomerulus. The pressure of blood is very high and so most of the water, salts, glucose and urea of the blood is forced out of glomerular capillaries.


    Q.23 What do you know about selective reabsorption?
    Ans.
     It is the second step of urine formation. In this step, about 99% of the glomerular filtrate is re- absorbed into the blood capillaries surrounding renal tubule. It occurs through osmosis, diffusion and active transport.


    Q.24 What is the tubular secretion?
    Ans.
     The third step of urine formation is called tubular secretion. Different ions, creatinine, urea etc. are secreted from blood into the filtrate in renal tubule. This is done to maintain blood at a normal pH
    (7.35-7.45).


    Q.25 What is lithotripsy.
    Ans.
     It is the method to remove kidney stones. In this method, non-electrical shock waves from outside are bombarded on the stones in the urinary system. Waves hit the dense stones and break them. Stones become sand like and are passed through urine.


    Q.26 Define dialysis.
    Ans.
     Dialysis means the cleaning of blood by artificial ways by using a dialyzer. It is of two types:
    (i) Peritoneal Dialysis
    (ii) Haemodialysis


    Q.27 What is a dialyzer?
    Ans.
     In haemodialysis, patient’s blood is pumped though an apparatus called dialyzer. It contains long tube, the walls of which act as semi-permeable membranes. Blood flows through the tubules and during this extra water and wastes move from blood into the dialysis fluid.


    Q.28 What is peritoneal dialysis?
    Ans.
     In this type of dialysis, the dialysis fluid is pumped for a time into the peritoneal cavity which is the space around gut. This cavity is lined by peritoneum. Peritoneum contains blood vessels. When dialysis fluid is placed in peritoneal cavity, waste materials from peritoneal blood vessels diffuse into the dialysis fluid, which is then drained out.


    Q.29 What is Haemodialysis?
    Ans.
     In haemodialysis, patient’s blood is pumped through an apparatus called dialyzer. It contains long tubing which act as semipermeable membrane. Blood flows through the tubes while the dialysis fluid flows around the tubes. Extra water and wastes move from blood into dialysis fluid. The cleaned blood is returned back to the body.


    Q.30 What is glomerulus filtrate?
    Ans.
     In the glomerulus due to high pressure of blood most of the water, salts, glucose and urea of the blood is forced out of glomerular capillaries. This material passes into the Bowman’s capsule and is called glomerular filtrate.


    Q.31 What are papillary ducts?
    Ans.
     Many collecting ducts join together to form several hundred papillary ducts which drain into renal pelvis.

    Q.32 What are ureters?
    Ans.
     Kidneys filter blood to produce urine and the ureters carry urine from kidneys to urinary bladder.


    Q.33 What is urethra?
    Ans.
     Urethra is the tube that carries urine from urinary bladder to the outside of body.


    Q.34 What is urinary bladder?
    Ans.
     Bladder is an organ of urinary system which temporarily stores urine until it is released from body.


    Q.35 What is urinary system?
    Ans. 
    Excretory system of human is also called the urinary system. It is composed of:
    i. Pair of kidneys
    ii. Pair of ureters
    iii. Urinary bladder and urethra


    Q.36 Why transpiration does not take place at night?
    Ans.
     At night, transpiration usually does not occur because most plants have their stomata closed.


    Q.37 What do you mean by kidney stone?
    Ans.
     When urine becomes concentrated, crystals of many salts e.g. calcium oxalate, calcium and ammonium phosphate, uric acid etc are formed in it. Such large crystals cannot pass in urine and form hard deposits called kidney stones. Most stones start in kidneys, some may travel to ureter or urinary bladder.


    Q.38 What is guttation? How does it differ from dew?
    Ans.
     Guttation
    (a) Definition
    The appearance of drops of water on the tips or edges of leaves is called guttation. Guttation is not to be confused with dew, which condenses from the atmosphere on to the plant surface.
    (b) Explanation
    Some plants such as grasses and strawberry force this water through special pores, present at leaf tips or edges, and form drops.

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    MCQs

    1.The human urinary system consists of:
    (a) Rectum, lungs, kidneys, ureters
    (b) Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder
    (c) Skin, liver, lungs, kidneys
    (d) Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra


    2.Which organ is responsible for filtering the blood?

    (a) Intestine
    (b) Brain
    (c) Stomach
    (d) Kidney


    3.The tube between kidney and urinary bladder is the:

    (a) Ureter
    (b) Urethra
    (c) Renal tubule
    (d) Nephron


    4.Body balance of water, salts, temperature and glucose is termed as:
    (a) Excretion
    (b) Tubular secretion
    (c) Homeostasis
    (d) Re-absorption


    5.Which is the correct order for the path taken by urine after it leaves the kidneys?
    (a) Urethra, bladder, ureters
    (b) Bladder, ureters, urethra
    (c) Ureters, bladder, urethra
    (d) Bladder, urethra, ureters


    6.What is the function of the ureter?
    (a) To store urine
    (b) To carry urine from the kidney to the bladder
    (c) To carry urine out of the body
    (d) To remove wastes from the blood


    7.What waste products are excreted by kidneys?

    (a) Urea, water & salts
    (b) Salts, water and carbon dioxide
    (c) Urea & water
    (d) Urea & salts


    8.The two main functions of sweat are:
    (a) To keep the body cool and to remove excess proteins
    (b) To keep the body warm and to filter the blood
    (c) To filter the blood and to remove waste products
    (d) To remove waste products and to cool the body


    9.Which would NOT be present in the filtrate entering the Bowman’s capsule of nephron?
    (a) Water
    (b) Calcium ions
    (c) Blood cells
    (d) Urea


    10.During peritoneal dialysis, the waste materials move from:
    (a) The abdomen to the dialysis fluid
    (b) The dialysis fluid to the peritoneum blood vessels
    (c) The peritoneum blood vessels to the dialysis fluid
    (d) The dialysis fluid to the abdomen


    11.Core temperature of human body remains at about:
    (a) 35°C
    (b) 36°C
    (c) 34°C
    (d) 37°C

    12.Calcium oxalate is deposited in the form of crystals in the leaves and stems of:
    (a) Pines
    (b) Tomatoes
    (c) Rubber
    (d) Keekar


    13.Resins are removed by:
    (a) Conifers
    (b) Lady finger
    (c) Grasses
    (d) Keekar


    14.Cacti are examples of:
    (a) Hydrophytes
    (b) Xerophytes
    (c) Halophytes
    (d) None


    15.Organs which work for homeostasis are:
    (a) Lungs
    (b) Skin
    (c) Kidneys
    (d) All of the above


    16.The depression near the centre of concave area of kidney is called:
    (a) Cortex
    (b) Hilus
    (c) Medulla
    (d) Pyramids


    17.U-shaped part of renal tubule is called:
    (a) Renal corpuscle
    (b) Glomerulus
    (c) Loop of Henle
    (d) Bowman’s capsule


    18.Which of following are not filtered through glomerular capillaries:
    (a) Blood cells
    (b) Proteins
    (c) Blood cells and Proteins
    (d) Urea


    19.The typical volume of urine produced by an average adult per day is:
    (a) 1 liter
    (b) 2 liters
    (c) 5 liters
    (d) 1.4 liters


    20.By drinking plenty of water how many stones can be avoided?
    (a) 20%
    (b) 90%
    (c) 50%
    (d) 30%


    21.A method for removing stones in which non-electrical shock waves are bombarded on stones is called:
    (a) Lithotripsy
    (b) Surgery
    (c) Dialysis
    (d) None


    22.Normal pH of blood is maintained at:
    (a) 7.35-7.40
    (b) 7.35-7.45
    (c) 7.30-7.40
    (d) 7.30-7.45


    23.The loss of water in the form of drops from tips of leaf is called:
    (a) Excretion
    (b) Guttation
    (c) Transpiration
    (d) Evaporation


    24.A method for removal of kidney stone is:
    (a) Haemodialysis
    (b) Peritoneal Dialysis
    (c) Lithotripsy
    (d) Kidney transplant


    25.In plants the excess water is removed by:
    (a) Respiration
    (b) Transpiration
    (c) Guttation
    (d) Transpiration and Guttation


    26.The ‘Nephrons’ are mainly made of:
    (a) Renal corpuscle
    (b) Renal tubule
    (c) Renal corpuscle and renal tubule
    (d) Renal pelvis


    27.Which is not the function of kidney?
    (a) pH balance
    (b) Blood pressure
    (c) Composition of blood
    (d) Digestion of proteins

    28.In animals, the excretion of CO₂ takes place by:
    (a) Kidneys
    (b) Stomach
    (c) Lungs
    (d) Liver


    29.Which one is not the part of kidney?
    (a) Medulla
    (b) Cerebellum
    (c) Nephrons
    (d) Glomerulus


    30.Metabolic wastes are eliminated by:

    (a) Respriation
    (b) Excretion
    (c) Homeostasis
    (d) Nutrition


    31.Guttation occurs in:
    (a) Pines
    (b) Tomatoes
    (c) Grasses
    (d) Lady finger


    32.Water is transported by:
    (a) Xylem
    (b) Phloem
    (c) Xylem and Phloem
    (d) Cambium


    33.What is produced during respiration?

    (a) CO₂
    (b) H₂O
    (c) CO2 and H₂O
    (d) N₂


    34.Rubber plant produces:
    (a) Gums
    (b) Mucilage
    (c) Latex
    (d) Resins


    35.Keekar produces:
    (a) Gums
    (b) Mucilage
    (c) Latex
    (d) Resins


    36.Broad leaves are found in:
    (a) Hydrophytes
    (b) Mesophytes
    (c) Xerophytes
    (d) Halophytes


    37.Succulent organs are found in:
    (a) Mesophytes
    (b) Hydrophytes
    (c) Xerophytes
    (d) Halophytes


    38.Uric acid is removed by:
    (a) Skin
    (b) Kidneys
    (c) Kidneys and Skin
    (d) Lungs


    39.Which creates an insulating blanket of warm air?
    (a) Dermis
    (b) Lungs
    (c) Liver
    (d) Goosebumps


    40.Which encloses glomerulus?
    (a) Pyramids
    (b) Loop of Henle
    (c) Bowman’s capsule
    (d) Collecting duct


    41.Amount of urea in normal chemical composition of urea in urine is:
    (a) 9.3 g/l.
    (b) 1.87 g/l
    (c) 1.17 g/l
    (d) 0.75 g/l


    42.%age of Potassium ions in urine is:
    (a) 1.8 g/l
    (c) 1.17 g/l
    (b) 0.75 g/l
    (d) 9.3 g/l


    43.Which is done at home?
    (a) Lithotripsy
    (b) Haemodialysis
    (c) Peritoneal dialysis
    (d) Kidney transplant


    44.Average life for a donated kidney is:
    (a) 8-10 years
    (c) 20 years
    (b) 5 years
    (d) 10-15 years


    45.Hypotonic urine is formed when water in body fluid is:
    (a) Less
    (b) Absent
    (c) In excess
    (d) Not filtered


    46.%age of water in Urine is:
    (a) 90%
    (b) 95%
    (c) 80%
    (d) 100%


    47.The name of the common mineral salt present in sweat is
    (a) Calcium nitrate
    (b) Sodium chloride
    (c) Potassium chloride
    (d) Iron phosphate

    48.In kidney the formation of urine occurs in steps?
    (a) 1
    (b) 2
    (c) 3
    (d) 4


    49.Arterial blood dialysis is also called:

    (a) Lithotripsy
    (b) X-rays
    (c) Haemodialysis
    (d) Kidney transplant


    50.The category of the plants that has adaptations of small and thick leaves to limit water loss is called:
    (a) Hydrophytes
    (c) Xerophytes
    (b) Mesophytes
    (d) Hygrophytes


    51.Who wrote an encyclopedia “Al Tasrif”?
    (a) Abu Nasr-al-Farabi
    (b) Abu al-Qasim Al-Zahrawi
    (c) Bu Ali Sina
    (d) Darwin


    52.Mucilage is secreted in:
    (a) Carnivorous plants
    (b) Lady finger
    (c) Carnivorous plants and Lady finger
    (d) Keekar


    53.The plants which live in sea water and are adapted to salty environments are called:
    (a) Halophytes
    (b) Hydrophytes
    (c) Xerophytes
    (d) Halophytes and Hydrophytes


    54.Excretion is also a process of:
    (a) Respiration
    (b) Co-ordination
    (c) Homeostasis
    (d) Breathing


    55.Despite eating a meal rich in carbohydrates, the blood glucose level remains about:
    (a) 1 g per liter
    (b) 2 g per liter
    (c) 3 g per liter
    (d) 4 g per liter


    56.Approximate weight of a Kidney is:
    (a) 10 grams
    (b) 15 grams
    (c) 20 grams
    (d) 27 grams


    57.The length of each Kidney is:
    (a) 10 cm
    (b) 15 cm
    (c) 20 cm
    (d) 30 cm


    58.Secretions secreted called:
    (a) Resins
    (b) Gums
    (c) Later
    (d) Mucilage

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    Class 10 Biology Chapter-11 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

    He purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible, no matter how hard we try. Either way, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions to improve the learning material. Our efforts are meant to benefit the entire community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends because “Sharing is Caring.”

  • 10th Class Biology Chapter 10: Gaseous Exchange

    10th Class Chapter 10: Gaseous Exchange Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 10 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 10 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q1.Differentiate between breathing and cellular respiration?
    Ans. Breathing
    (i) Breathing is used for the process through which animals take air in bodies to get oxygen from it and then give out the air for getting rid of carbon dioxide.
    (ii) It is only the mechanical or physical process for exchange of gases.
    Cellular respiration (Board 2013)
    (i) Cellular respiration is the process in which the C-H bonds in food are broken by oxidation reduction reactions and the energy is transformed into ATP.
    (ii) It is a mechanical and biochemical process.


    Q2. Trace the path of air from the nasal cavity to the alveoli?
    Ans.The following is the path of air:
    Nasal cavity
    pharynx
    larynx
    trachea
    bronchus
    bronchioles→
    alveolar ducts
    alveoli


    Q3. How will you differentiate between stomata and lenticels?
    Ans. Stomata
    (i) The leaves and young stems have stomata in their epidermis.
    (ii) The gaseous exchange occurs through these stomata.
    Lenticels
    (i) In woody stems and mature roots, there are certain pores in the layer of bark.
    (ii) The lenticels allow air to pass through them.


    Q4. What are alveolar ducts?
    Ans. In the lungs, the bronchioles end as fine tubules called the alveolar ducts.


    Q5. Define Alveolus?
    Ans. Within the lungs, each alveolar duct opens into a cluster of pouches called alveoli. The alveoli form the respiratory surface in humans.


    Q6. What is Asthma? Write its symptoms?
    Ans. Asthma is a form of allergy, in which there is inflammation of the bronchi, more mucous production and narrowing of the airways. In asthma patients the bronchi and bronchioles become sensitive to different allergens and patient feels difficulty in breathing. The major symptoms are:
    (i) Shortness of breath
    (ii) Wheezing
    (iii) Cough and chest tightness


    Q7. Define breathing?
    Ans. The term breathing is used for the process through which animals take air in bodies to get oxygen from it and then give out the air for getting rid of carbon dioxide. It is only the mechanical or physical process for exchange of gases.


    Q8. What are bronchioles?
    Ans. The bronchi continue dividing in the lungs until they make several fine tubes called bronchioles. The bronchioles progressively lose the cartilages as they become narrower.


    Q9. What is bronchitis?
    Ans. Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchi or bronchioles. It results in excessive secretion of mucous into the tubes leading to the swelling of tubular walls and narrowing of tubes. It is caused by viruses, bacteria or exposure to chemical irritants e.g. tobacco smoke.


    Q10. Define bronchus?
    Ans. On entering the chest cavity, the trachea divides into two smaller tubes called bronchus. The bronchi also have cartilagenous plates in their walls.


    Q11. Define diaphragm?
    Ans.
     A thick muscular structure is present below the lungs is called diaphragm.


    Q12. What is emphysema?
    Ans. Emphysema is the destruction of the wall of the alveoli. It results in larger sacs but with less surface area for gaseous exchange. As lung tissue breaks down, the lungs do not come back to their original shape after exhalation. So air cannot be pushed out and is trapped in the lungs.
    Symptoms
    (i) Shortness of breath
    (ii) Fatigue
    (iii) Recurrent respiratory infections
    (iv) Weight loss


    Q13. What is exhalation?
    Ans. It takes place in the following way:
    Relaxation of rib muscles and diaphragm
    After the gaseous exchange in the lungs, the impure air is expelled out in exhalation. The ribs come back to the original position, the diaphragm muscles also relax and it gets its raised dome
    shape.
    Effect of relaxation
    This reduces the space in the chest cavity and increases the pressure on lungs. The lungs contract and the air is expelled out of them.

    Q14. What is gaseous exchange?
    Ans. Taking in oxygen and giving out of carbon dioxide is termed as gaseous exchange.


    Q15. What is inhalation?
    Ans. It takes place in the following way:
    Contraction of Rib muscles and diaphragm
    During inhalation the rib muscles contract and ribs are raised. At the same time the dome shaped diaphragm contracts and is lowered.
    Effect of contraction
    These movements increase the area of the thoracic cavity, which reduces the pressure on lungs. As a result, the lungs expand and the air pressure within them also decreases. The air from outside rushes into the lungs to equalize the pressure on both sides.


    Q16. Define Larynx?
    Ans. The larynx is a box made up of cartilage. It is present between pharynx and trachea. It is also called voice box.


    Q17. Define lenticels?
    Ans. In woody stems and mature roots, there are certain pores in the layer of bark. The lenticels allow air to pass through them.


    Q18. What is Nasal cavity?
    Ans. The nose encloses the nasal cavity. The, nasal cavity is divided into two portions by a wall. Each portion is lined by fine hairs and mucous which filter the dust particles from the air. The mucous also moistens and warms the incoming air and keeps its temperature usually equal to that of the body.


    Q19. Define Nostrils?
    Ans. Nasal cavity opens to the outside through the openings called the nostrils.


    Q20. What is pneumonia?
    Ans. It is an infection of lungs.
    Double Pneumonia
    If this infection affects both lungs it is called double pneumonia.
    Cause
    The most common cause of pneumonia is bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. Some viral and fungal infections may also lead to pneumonia.


    Q21. What is trachea?
    Ans. Larynx continues to the trachea, which is also called the windpipe. It is about 12 cm long tube which lies in front of the oesophagus. There are C-shaped cartilagenous rings in the wall of trachea The cartilage keep the trachea from collapsing even when there is no air in it.


    Q22. Define vocal cord?
    Ans. Two pairs of fibrous bands called vocal cords are stretched across the larynx. The vocal cords vibrate when the air passes through them. This vibration produces sounds.


    Q23. Define epiglottis. Write its function?
    Ans. In the air passageway of man, the glottis is guarded by a flap of tissue is called epiglottis. Epiglottis closes the opening of glottis while swallowing in order to prevent entry of any food particle into it.


    Q24. What are the symptoms of Bronchitis?
    Ans. Symptoms of Bronchitis includes:
    (a) Cough
    (b) Mild wheezing
    (c) Fever
    (d) Chills
    (e) Shortness of breath (Especially when doing hard job)


    Q25. What is Larynx? Write its function?
    Ans. Definition
    The larynx is a box made of cartilage. It is also called the voice box. It is present between pharynx and trachea.
    Function
    Two pairs of fibrous bands called vocal cords are stretched across the larynx. When the air passes through them, the vocal cords vibrate. This vibration produces sounds. Movements of lips, cheeks, tongue and jaws produce specific sounds which results in speech. Speech is an ability of only humans.

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    MCQs

    1.The process of gaseous exchange involves:
    (a) Breakdown of C-H bonds to yield energy
    (b) Physical movements that take air in and out of body
    (c) Getting oxygen from the air and removing carbon dioxide
    (d) Transport of oxygen by the blood to different parts of the body


    2.Most of the gaseous exchange in a leaf occurs through:
    (a) Stomata
    (c) Cuticle
    (b) General surface
    (d) Lenticels


    3.How many bronchi are there in the air passageway?
    (a) One
    (c) Many
    (b) Two
    (d) None


    4.Where does the gaseous exchange occur in humans?
    (a) Pharynx
    (c) Bronchi
    (b) Trachea
    (d) Alveoli


    5.Which structure actively helps in taking the air out of lungs?
    (a) Nasal cavity
    (b) Bronchus
    (c) Bronchiole
    (d) Diaphragm


    6.The primary chemical stimulus for breathing is the concentration of;
    (a) Carbon dioxide in blood
    (b) Oxygen in blood
    (c) Carbon dioxide in muscles
    (d) Oxygen in muscles


    7.Point out the FALSE statement about respiration.
    (a) Gases can easily pass through the walls of the alveoli
    (b) Gas exchange in lungs is very efficient because lungs provide large surface area
    (c) In emphysema, the walls of alveoli break and there is more surface area
    (d) Dust particles can damage the lung by irritating the inner alveoli surface


    8.A disease involving the breakdown of air sacs of the lungs is;
    (a) Pneumonia
    (c) Asthma
    (b) Bronchitis
    (d) Emphysema


    9.Which process does not occur in the nasal cavity?
    (a) Trapping of large dust particles
    (b) Humidification of the inhaled air
    (c) Warming of the inhaled air
    (d) Exchange of gases


    10.What type of blood vessels surrounds the alveoli?

    (a) Artery
    (c) Capillary
    (b) Arteriole
    (d) Vein


    11.In which of the following gaseous exchange occurs through stomata?
    (a) Leaves and young stems
    (b) Woody stems and mature roots
    (c) Young roots
    (d) Aquatic plants


    12.In humans and other higher animals,the exchange of gases is carried out by:
    (a) Skin
    (b) Respiratory surface
    (c) Air passageway
    (d) Lungs

    13.The length of trachea is:
    (a) 10 cm
    (b) 12 cm
    (c) 22 cm
    (d) 20 cm


    14.C-shaped cartilagenous rings are present in the wall of;
    (a) Bronchi
    (b) Alveoli
    (c) Bronchioles
    (d) Trachea


    15.How many pairs of ribs are there in humans?
    (a) 24
    (b) 12
    (c) 26
    (d) None


    16.How many lobes are present in right lung?
    (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 4
    (d) 5


    17.Which of the following is called voice box?
    (a) Trachea
    (b) Larynx 
    (c) Bronchi
    (d) Alveoli


    18.The normal breathing rate in human being is:
    (a) 10-40 times per minute
    (b) 16-20 times per minute
    (c) 30-40 times per minute
    (d) None of these


    19.During exercise or other hard physical works the breathing rate may increase up to:
    (a) 30-40 times per minute
    (b) 50-60 times per minute
    (c) 50-55 times per minute
    (d) 60-70 times per minute


    20.Amount of oxygen in expired air is:
    (a) 21%
    (b) 16% 
    (c) 0.04%
    (d) 4%

    21.Amount of carbon dioxide in inspired air is:
    (a) 16%
    (b) 0.04%
    (c) 4%
    (d) None


    22.Amount of nitrogen in expired air is:
    (a) 70%
    (b) 80%
    (c) 79%
    (d) 4%


    23.Cough, mild wheezing, fever, chills and shortness of breath (especially when doing hard job) are symptoms of:
    (a) Emphysema
    (b) Pneumonia
    (c) Asthma
    (d) Bronchitis


    24.In which of the following disease, the patient has usually lost 50% to 70% of his/her lung tissue when symptoms appears?
    (a) Pneumonia
    (b) Asthma
    (c) Emphysema
    (d) Bronchitis


    25.Pneumonia is an infection of:

    (a) Kidneys
    (b) Digestive system
    (c) Lungs
    (d) Blood


    26.Which one is the form of allergy?
    (a) Asthma
    (b) Pneumonia
    (c) Bronchitis
    (d) Lung cancer


    27.When the “World No Tobacco Day” is celebrated?
    (a) 30 June
    (c) 11 January
    (b) 31 June
    (d) None


    28.Smoking may also lead to the cancers in:
    (a) Kidneys and pancreas
    (b) Oral cavity and larynx
    (c) Breast and bladder
    (d) All of the above


    29.The destruction of wall of alveoli is called:
    (a) Pneumonia
    (b) Emphysema 
    (c) Asthma


    30.The inflammation of bronchi or bronchioles is called:
    (a) Bronchitis
    (b) Emphysema
    (c) Pneumonia
    (d) Asthma


    31.Which remains unaffected in expired air?
    (a) O2
    (b) CO2
    (c) N2
    (d) Water vapours


    32.In developing world smoking has:
    (a) Decline
    (b) Risen by 5.4%
    (c) No effect
    (d) Risen by 3.4%


    33.In young stems and leaves some gaseous exchange occurs through
    (a) Leaf petioles
    (b) Cuticle
    (c) Leaf petioles and cuticl
    (d) Mesophyll


    34.Exchange of gases occurs through lenticels in;

    (a) Woody stems
    (b) Mature roots
    (c) Woody stems and mature roots
    (d) Young stems


    35.Gases diffuse by general surface in:
    (a) All stems
    (b) Young roots
    (c) All leaves
    (d) Mature roots


    36.Air passageway starts from:
    (a) Nose
    (b) Pharynx
    (c) Trachea
    (d) Bronchi

    37.A flap of tissue which guards glottis is:
    (a) Larynx
    (b) Epiglottis
    (c) Pharynx
    (d) Ribs


    38.Temperature of expired air is:
    (a) High
    (b) Low
    (c) Equal to the body temperature
    (d) Equal to external environment


    39.Cluster of pouches found respiratory system:

    (a) Bronchi
    (b) Alveoli
    (c) Bronchioles
    (d) Trachea


    40.Lungs are organ which are;
    (a) Spongy
    (c) Spongy and elastic
    (d) Tough

    41.Dusky or purplish skin colour is a symptom of:
    (a) Bronchitis
    (b) Emphysema
    (c) Pneumonia
    (d) Asthma


    42.Total chemicals in tobacco smoke are:
    (a) 1000
    (b) 2000
    (c) 3000
    (d) 4000


    43.Tooth loss is times higher in smokers than in non-smokers.
    (a) 2-5 times
    (b) 1-2 times
    (c) 2-3 times
    (d) 4-5 times


    44.Which of the following lessens the oxygen carrying of haemoglobin?

    (a) Tar
    (b) Carbon dioxide
    (c) Nicotine
    (d) Carbon monoxide


    45.A powerful poison which damages brain is:
    (a) Tar
    (b) Nicotine
    (c) Carcinogen
    (d) Carbon monoxide


    46.Function of pleural membrane is to:
    (a) Hold the lungs in their correct position in cavity
    (b) Help to increase the volume of cavity during respiration
    (c) Increase volume of chest
    (d) Secrete to help the lungs


    47.Which one takes deoxygenated blood towards lungs
    (a) Pulmonary artery
    (b) Aorta
    (c) Superior Vena cava
    (d) Pulmonary vein


    48.Asthma is caused by:
    (a) Perfumes
    (b) Vitamin B-12 deficiency
    (c) Vitamin C deficiency
    (d) Vitamin K deficiency


    49.Some viral (Influenza virus) and fungal infections may also lead to:

    (a) Asthma
    (b) Pneumonia
    (c) Lung cancer
    (d) Emphysema


    50.A thick muscular structure present below the lungs is called:
    (a) Alveolus
    (b) Tracheoles
    (c) Diaphragm
    (d) Bronchioles


    51.The main cause of lung cancer is:
    (a) Smoking
    (b) Viral infection
    (c) Bacterial infection
    (d) Both viral and bacterial infection


    52.Passive smoking in non-smokers has increased heart rate by:

    (a) 20-30%
    (c) 25-40%
    (b) 25-30%
    (d) 30-40%


    53.Percentage of CO₂ in exhaled air during breathing is:

    (a) 16%
    (b) 4%
    (c) 79%
    (d) 0.04%


    54.Rate of breathing depends upon concentration of which gas in the blood?
    (a) Oxygen
    (b) Carbon dioxide
    (c) Nitrogen
    (d) Hydrogen

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    Class 10 Biology Chapter-10 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

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