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  • 2nd Year Biology Chapter 22 : Variation & Genetics

    2nd year Chapter 22: Variation & Genetics Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 2nd year  Biology Chapter 22 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 2nd year Biology Chapter 22 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Biology Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q 1. Difference between phenotype and genotype?

    Ans. Phenotype is how a trait looks, genotype is the genetic makeup.

    Q 2. Define population?

    Ans. A group of interbreeding organisms of the same species.

    Q 3. What is the product rule?

    Ans. Multiply probabilities of individual phenotypes for independent events.

    Q 4. Name types of dominance relations among alleles?

    Ans. Complete, incomplete, codominance, overdominance.

    Q 5. Who discovered ABO blood group?

    Ans. Karl Landsteiner in 1901.

    Q 6. What is epistasis?

    Ans. When one gene interferes with the effect of another gene.

    Q 7. What are polygenetic traits?

    Ans. Traits influenced by multiple genes.

    Q 8. What is Crossover or recombinant frequency?

    Ans. Proportion of recombinant types between genes.

    Q 9. Organism lacking sex chromosomes?

    Ans. Some eukaryotic microorganisms like yeast.

    Q 10. True color blindness: monochromacy or dichromacy?

    Ans. Monochromacy is true color blindness.

    Q 11. Why did Mendelian factors behave like chromosomes?

    Ans. Mendelian factors (genes) are located on chromosomes.

    Q 12. How is sexual dimorphism exhibited in Drosophila?

    Ans. Male and female Drosophila have distinct morphology.

    Q 13. Difference between gene and genome?

    Ans. Gene is a unit of biological information, genome is an organism’s genetic material.

    Q 14. What are genes and alleles?

    Ans. Genes are parts of DNA, alleles are gene variants.

    Q 15. Difference between Monohybrid and dihybrid?

    Ans. Monohybrid involves one trait, dihybrid involves two.

    Q 16. Difference between Homozygous and heterozygous?

    Ans. Homozygous has identical alleles, heterozygous has different alleles.

    Q 17. Difference between Dominance and epistasis?

    Ans. Dominance is the effect of an allele, epistasis is gene interaction.

    Q 18. Difference between Autosome and sex chromosome?

    Ans. Autosomes are non-sex chromosomes, sex chromosomes determine gender.

    Q 19. Difference between Allele and multiple allele?

    Ans. Alleles are gene variants, multiple alleles have more than two options.

    Q 20. Difference between Sex limited and sex influenced trait?

    Ans. Sex-limited traits occur in one sex due to anatomy, sex-influenced traits occur in both sexes but may be more common in one.

    Q 21. Incomplete dominance vs. codominance?

    Ans. Incomplete: Heterozygote’s phenotype is in between. E.g., 4 O’clock flower. Codominance: Both alleles expressed. E.g., MN blood type.

    Q 22. Dominant vs. recessive trait?

    Ans. Dominant: Appears in hybrids. Recessive: Suppressed in hybrids.

    Q 23. Continuous vs. discontinuous variations?

    Ans. Continuous: Many phenotypes (e.g., human height). Discontinuous: Two distinct phenotypes (e.g., Mendel’s pea shape).

    Q 24. Wild type vs. mutant?

    Ans. Wild type: Normal traits. Mutant: Trait due to mutation.

    Q 25. What is a gene pool?

    Ans. All alleles in a population.

    Q 26. Why was pea lucky for Mendel?

    Ans. 7 traits, 7 pairs of chromosomes. Independent assortment. Deviation with 8 traits.

    Q 27. What is a test cross?

    Ans. Cross for genotype of dominant phenotype.

    Q 28. Consequences of non-segregation at meiosis?

    Ans. Non-disjunction affects gamete purity.

    Q 29. Missing combinations without independent assortment?

    Ans. Recombination is missing.

    Q 30. Equal chance for alleles in gametes?

    Ans. Meiosis and segregation.

    Q 31. Dominant allele effect on recessive?

    Ans. Dominant doesn’t modify recessive.

    Q 32. Which traits assort independently?

    Ans. Traits on different chromosomes.

    Q 33. Why blood group phenotype constant?

    Ans. Genes don’t change throughout life.

    Q 34. Universal blood donor?

    Ans. O blood group individuals.

    Q 35. ABO incompatibility and Rh protection?

    Ans. ABO incompatibility can protect against Rh incompatibility.

    Q 36. Genes not obeying independent assortment?

    Ans. Genes on the same chromosome.

    Q 37. Separating linked genes?

    Ans. Crossing over.

    Q 38. Multifactorial inheritance?

    Ans. Trait influenced by genes and environment.

    Q 39. What is MODY?

    Ans. Early-onset diabetes with genetic cause.

    Q 40. Child’s intelligence vs. parents?

    Ans. Child may have higher intelligence.

    Q 41. What is Locus?

    Ans. Gene’s position on a chromosome.

    Q 42. What are Alleles?

    Ans. Gene partner variations.

    Q 43. Why is Mendel famous?

    Ans. Discovered laws of heredity.

    Q 44. Mendel’s law of segregation?

    Ans. Alleles separate in gametes.

    Q 45. What is Punnett square?

    Ans. Tool for genetic trait predictions.

    Q 46. Mendel’s Law of independent Assortment?

    Ans. Alleles for different traits assort independently.

    Q 47. What is Linkage group?

    Ans. Genes on the same chromosome.

    Q 48. What is Over dominance?

    Ans. Heterozygote exceeds both homozygotes.

    Q 49. Who discovered ABO blood group?

    Ans. Karl Landsteiner.

    Q 50. Why is Bernstein famous?

    Ans. Explained ABO genetic basis.

    Q 51. Antigens produced by IA, IB, and i alleles?

    Ans. IA – Antigen A, IB – Antigen B, i – No antigen.

    Q 52. ABO blood system genotypes and phenotypes?

    Ans. IAIA or IAi – Phenotype A, IBIB or IBi – Phenotype B, ii – Phenotype O.

    Q 53. Why blood group phenotype doesn’t change?

    Ans. Genes active from early embryonic stage.

    Q 54. Antibodies in A, B, AB, and O blood?

    Ans. A – Anti-B, B – Anti-A, AB – None, O – Anti-A and Anti-B.

    Q 55. What is antiserum?

    Ans. Serum with antibodies.

    Q 56. Why is O called universal donor?

    Ans. O has no antibodies, can donate to all.

    Q 57. Why are AB individuals universal recipients?

    Ans. AB can receive from all blood types.

    Q 58. What is Rh blood group?

    Ans. Defined by Rh-factor on RBCs.

    Q 59. What is Erythroblastosis foetalis?

    Ans. Mother’s Rh antibodies harm Rh+ foetus.

    Q 60. Why called erythroblastosis foetalis?

    Ans. Foetus releases immature erythroblasts.

    Q 61. What is Bombay phenotype?

    Ans. Like O but not genotypically O.

    Q 62. Define pleiotropy?

    Ans. One gene affecting multiple traits.

    Q 63. W allele effect on cats?

    Ans. White fur and deafness.

    Q 64. Two aspects of phenotypic expression?

    Ans. Qualitative and Quantitative.

    Q 65. Environmental factors affecting wheat grain color?

    Ans. Light, water, and nutrients.

    Q 66. Tallness and shortness in humans?

    Ans. Tallness is recessive, more shortness alleles = shorter.

    Q 67. What is gene linkage?

    Ans. Genes staying together on a chromosome.

    Q 68. Define crossing over?

    Ans. Exchange of chromosome segments.

    Q 69. Human chromosome pairs?

    Ans. 22 autosomes and 1 sex pair.

    Q 70. What is SRY?

    Ans. Male determining gene on Y-chromosome.

    Q 71. Grasshopper chromosome numbers?

    Ans. Female: 24 (XX), Male: 23 (XO).

    Q 72. Homogametic vs. heterogametic?

    Ans. Homogametic: Same sex chromosomes. Heterogametic: Different sex chromosomes.

    Q 73. What is nullo gamete?

    Ans. Gamete with no sex chromosome.

    Q 74. XX-XY and WZ-ZZ sex determination in animals?

    Ans. Common in birds, butterflies, and moths.

    Q 75. XXY in humans and Drosophila?

    Ans. XXY human: Sterile male (Klinefelter’s). XXY Drosophila: Fertile female.

    Q 76. X:A ratio for females and males?

    Ans. X:A > 1.0 for females, X:A < 0.5 for males.

    Q 77. Monoecious vs. dioecious plants?

    Ans. Monoecious has both sexes, dioecious has separate male and female plants.

    Q 78. Why is Correns famous?

    Ans. Discovered sex-determining pollen.

    Q 79. Why is T.H. Morgan famous?

    Ans. Found sex linkage in Drosophila supporting chromosomal theory.

    Q 80. Why can a single X-linked recessive allele express in males?

    Ans. Y chromosome lacks the gene.

    Q 81. What are Sex-linked and X-linked traits?

    Ans. Traits on X chromosome, often called sex-linked.

    Q 82. Pattern of sex-linked inheritance?

    Ans. Passes from maternal grandfather to grandson.

    Q 83. What are Y-linked genes?

    Ans. Genes unique to the Y chromosome.

    Q 84. X- and Y-linked genes?

    Ans. Genes on both X and Y chromosomes.

    Q 85. Why are X- and Y-linked genes called pseudoautosomal?

    Ans. Their inheritance pattern resembles autosomes.

    Q 86. X-linked dominant and recessive traits?

    Ans. Haemophilia is X-linked recessive, while others are X-linked dominant.

    Q 87. What is haemophilia?

    Ans. Blood clotting disorder.

    Q 88. Types of haemophilia?

    Ans. A, B, and C.

    Q 89. Percentage of haemophilia types?

    Ans. A: 80%, B: 20%, C: <1%.

    Q 90. Which haemophilia affects men more?

    Ans. Haemophilia A and B.

    Q 91. When can a woman have haemophilia A or B?

    Ans. If she’s homozygous for the recessive allele.

    Q 92. Pattern of inheritance of haemophilia?

    Ans. Zigzags from maternal grandfather to grandson.

    Q 93. What are opsins?

    Ans. Light-absorbing proteins in cone cells.

    Q 94. What is dichromat? Types of dichromatic blindness?

    Ans. Dichromat sees two primary colors but can’t perceive the third. Types: Protanopia, Deuteranopia, Tritanopia.

    Q 95. Differentiate between protanopia, deuteranopia, and tritanopia?

    Ans. Protanopia: Red color blindness. Deuteranopia: Green color blindness. Tritanopia: Blue color blindness.

    Q 96. What are protanomalous and deuteranomalous?

    Ans. Abnormal perception of red and green shades due to altered opsins.

    Q 97. What is Monochromacy?

    Ans. Can perceive only one color, true color blindness.

    Q 98. What is Blue cone monochromacy?

    Ans. Red and green cone cells are absent.

    Q 99. Why is red-green color blindness more common in men?

    Ans. Y chromosome lacks the alternate gene.

    Q 100. Pattern of X-linked dominant inheritance?

    Ans. More common in females, all daughters of affected father are affected.

    Q 101. Pattern of Y-Linked inheritance?

    Ans. Passes from father to son only.

    Q 102. What are sex-limited traits?

    Ans. Traits affecting structures or functions present in only one sex.

    Q 103. What are sex-influenced traits?

    Ans. Traits common but more prevalent in one sex due to hormonal differences.

    Q 104. Risk of son inheriting pattern baldness?

    Ans. Son has a high risk.

    Q 105. What is Diabetes mellitus?

    Ans. Hereditary disease with high blood sugar.

    Q 106. Effects of diabetes?

    Ans. Kidney failure, blindness, amputation, heart disease.

    Q 107. What is Type I diabetes?

    Ans. Early-onset, insulin-dependent diabetes.

    Q 108. What is Type II diabetes?

    Ans. Common in adults, non-insulin dependent diabetes.

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    For the 2nd year Biology Chapter 22 Introduction to Programming, this set of notes follows the new syllabus, as it is for all Punjab boards. Other boards offer notes that different from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the boards in Punjab.

    the purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.

  • 2nd Year Biology Chapter 21 : Cell Cycle

    2nd year Chapter 21: Cell Cycle Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 2nd year  Biology Chapter 21 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 2nd year Biology Chapter 21 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Biology Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q 1. What is the cell cycle?

    Ans. The cell cycle is a sequence of changes in a cell, including growth, DNA replication, and cell division.

    Q 2. How long is the human cell cycle?

    Ans. The average human cell cycle takes about 24 hours.

    Q 3. What is chromatin?

    Ans. Chromatin is a network of fine threads made visible with histologic stains of DNA.

    Q 4. What do higher plants have instead of visible centrioles?

    Ans. Higher plants have an analogous region from which spindle microtubules radiate.

    Q 5. What is metastasis?

    Ans. Metastasis is the spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body from their original site.

    Q 6. When does meiosis occur in plants and animals?

    Ans. Meiosis occurs in diploid cells during gamete formation in animals and when spores are produced in plants.

    Q 7. Define crossing over?

    Ans. Crossing over is the exchange of segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes due to chiasmata formation.

    Q 8. Name two significant events of meiosis?

    Ans. Two significant events of meiosis are crossing over and random assortment of chromosomes.

    Q 9. How many chromosomes are present in males affected by Klinefelter’s syndrome?

    Ans. Males with Klinefelter’s syndrome can have 48 chromosomes (XXXY), 49 chromosomes (XXXY), or 47 chromosomes (XYY).

    Q 10. What are the symptoms of Turner’s syndrome?

    Ans. Symptoms of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, webbed neck, absence of ovaries, and a complete absence of germ cells in individuals with one missing X chromosome (45 chromosomes).

    Q 11. What is apoptosis?

    Ans. Apoptosis is the programmed sequence of events leading to cell self-destruction.

    Q 12. Name the stages of interphase?

    Ans. Interphase consists of G1-phase, S-phase, and G2-phase.

    Q 13. What is G1-phase?

    Ans. G1-phase is a period of metabolic activity, growth, and accumulation of DNA base units.

    Q 14. What is G0?

    Ans. G0 is a phase where post-mitotic cells exit the cell cycle and may remain without further proliferation.

    Q 15. What happens in the S-phase of the cell cycle?

    Ans. In the S-phase, DNA is synthesized, and the chromosome number doubles.

    Q 16. What occurs in the G2-phase (pre-mitotic phase)?

    Ans. In the G2-phase, the cell prepares for division by synthesizing energy, proteins, RNA, and microtubule subunits. Q 17. Define mitosis?

    Ans. Mitosis is a type of cell division that ensures the same number of chromosomes in daughter cells as in the parent cells.

    Q 18. What are the two conventional phases of Mitosis?

    Ans. The two conventional phases of Mitosis are Karyokinesis (nucleus division) and Cytokinesis (whole cell division).

    Q 19. What is the Mitotic apparatus?

    Ans. The specialized microtubule structure, including asters and spindles, is called the Mitotic apparatus. Q 20. Name the microtubules originating from centrioles?

    Ans. The microtubules originating from centrioles are astral microtubules, kinetochore microtubules, and polar microtubules.

    Q 21. What happens in Prophase of mitosis?

    Ans. Chromosomes become visible and nuclear changes occur.

    Q 22. What is kinetochore?

    Ans. A specialized region on the centromere.

    Q 23. What occurs in Telophase of mitosis?

    Ans. Chromosomes decondense, nuclear changes happen.

    Q 24. What is Phragmoplast?

    Ans. A membrane structure in plant cytokinesis.

    Q 25. Define cancer?

    Ans. Malignant growth from uncontrolled cell division.

    Q 26. What is Tumour?

    Ans. Uncontrolled cell proliferation forming a mass.

    Q 27. What are two basic types of tumour?

    Ans. Benign and Malignant.

    Q 28. What is benign tumours?

    Ans. Small, localized, behave like normal cells.

    Q 29. What is malignant tumour?

    Ans. Rapidly dividing, invasive, can spread.

    Q 30. How to distinguish cancer cells from normal cells?

    Ans. Less differentiated, rapid growth characteristics.

    Q 31. What are the main causes of cancer?

    Ans. Somatic cell mutations in cell division genes.

    Q 32. Define meiosis?

    Ans. Cell division reducing chromosome number.

    Q 33. How does prophase of meiosis differ from mitosis?

    Ans. Chromosomes behave as homologous pairs.

    Q 34. What are homologous chromosomes?

    Ans. Similar but not necessarily identical chromosomes.

    Q 35. Name sub-stages of prophase I of meiosis?

    Ans. Leptotene, zygotene, diplotene, diakinesis.

    Q 36. What is synapsis?

    Ans. Pairing of homologous chromosomes.

    Q 37. What is bivalent or tetrad?

    Ans. Paired homologous chromosomes.

    Q 38. Duration of Pachytene, leptotene, zygotene?

    Ans. Pachytene can last long, leptotene and zygotene are short.

    Q 39. What is chiasmata?

    Ans. Points of interchange in homologous chromosomes.

    Q 40. What happens in Diakinesis?

    Ans. Maximum chromosome condensation, separation.

    Q 41. Events in metaphase I of meiosis?

    Ans. Nuclear changes, spindle fibers, bivalent alignment.

    Q 42. How does anaphase I of meiosis differ from mitosis?

    Ans. Only homologous chromosomes separate.

    Q 43. How does meiosis maintain constant chromosome number?

    Ans. Halves chromosome number in gametes, restores after fertilization.

    Q 44. Define non-disjunction?

    Ans. Failure to segregate chromosomes in cell division.

    Q 45. What is autosomal non-disjunction?

    Ans. Failure of autosomal chromosomes to segregate.

    Q 46. What is Downs Syndrome (Mongolism)?

    Ans. Extra 21st chromosome, resulting in 47 chromosomes.

    Q 47. Is Downs syndrome related to the mother’s age?

    Ans. Yes, risk increases with mother’s age.

    Q 48. What are symptoms of Downs syndrome?

    Ans. Flat face, squint eyes, mental retardation.

    Q 49. What is sex chromosomal non-disjunction?

    Ans. Failure of sex chromosomes to segregate.

    Q 50. What is Necrosis?

    Ans. Cell death due to tissue damage.

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    For the 2nd year Biology Chapter 21 Introduction to Programming, this set of notes follows the new syllabus, as it is for all Punjab boards. Other boards offer notes that different from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the boards in Punjab.

    the purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.

  • 2nd Year Biology Chapter 20 : Chromosomes & DNA

    2nd year Chapter 20: Chromosomes & DNA Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 2nd year  Biology Chapter 20 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 2nd year Biology Chapter 20 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Biology Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q 1. Who first observed chromosomes?

    Ans. The German embryologist Walther Fleming first observed them in 1882 while examining the rapidly dividing cells of salamander larvae.

    Q 2. What is euchromatin?

    Ans. Euchromatin is the portion of the chromosome, excluding heterochromatin, which is condensed only during cell division and allows gene expression at other times.

    Q 3. What is transformation?

    Ans. Transformation is the transfer of genetic material from one cell to another, altering the recipient cell’s genetic makeup.

    Q 4. What is nuclein?

    Ans. Nuclein is a substance extracted by Miescher from the nuclei of human cells and fish sperm, associated with the nucleus.

    Q 5. What is semi-conservative replication?

    Ans. Semi-conservative replication is a DNA replication method where the daughter DNAs have one original strand and one newly synthesized strand.

    Q 6. How does DNA polymerase III initiate DNA synthesis?

    Ans. DNA polymerase III initiates DNA synthesis after an RNA primer is constructed by another enzyme called primase, recognizing the primer and adding DNA nucleotides to it.

    Q 7. What are Okazaki fragments?

    Ans. Okazaki fragments are short segments that make up the lagging strand during DNA replication.

    Q 8. What is the length of Okazaki fragments?

    Ans. In eukaryotes, Okazaki fragments are about 100-200 nucleotides long, while in prokaryotes, they are 1000-2000 nucleotides long.

    Q 9. What is “one gene / one polypeptide”?

    Ans. “One gene / one polypeptide” refers to the idea that each gene encodes a single polypeptide or protein subunit.

    Q 10. What is transcription?

    Ans. Transcription is the process of producing an mRNA copy of a gene, which is the first step in the central dogma of molecular biology.

    Q 11. What are stop codons and why are they called nonsense codons?

    Ans. Stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) do not code for any amino acid and are called nonsense codons. They signal the end of protein synthesis.

    Q 12. What is the initiation codon?

    Ans. Every gene starts with the initiation codon AUG, which encodes the amino acid methionine.

    Q 13. How long would the DNA from all cells of an adult human stretch?

    Ans. If the DNA from all cells of an adult human were lined up, it would stretch nearly 100 billion kilometers, equivalent to 60 times the distance from Earth to Jupiter.

    Q 14. What is a primer?

    Ans. A primer is a short sequence of about 10 RNA nucleotides complementary to the DNA template, synthesized by the enzyme primase.

    Q 15. What are the three major classes of RNA?

    Ans. The three major classes of RNA are mRNA (messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA), and rRNA (ribosomal RNA).

    Q 16. What is the function of RNA polymerase in transcription?

    Ans. RNA polymerase initiates transcription by binding to the promoter region at the beginning of a gene.

    Q 17. What is a triplet code?

    Ans. The genetic code for specifying amino acids is based on a triplet code, where three consecutive bases represent one amino acid.

    Q 18. What is an anticodon?

    Ans. An anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides in tRNA that is complementary to the mRNA codon during protein synthesis.

    Q 19. What are chromosomes?

    Ans. Chromosomes are thread-like structures found in the cell nucleus, first observed by Walther Fleming in 1882 during cell division.

    Q 20. How many chromosomes do Penicillium and some ferns have?

    Ans. Penicillium, a fungus, has one pair of chromosomes, while some ferns may have more than 500 pairs.

    Q 21. What is a typical chromosome made of?

    Ans. A typical chromosome is made up of chromatids, a centromere, and a secondary constriction.

    Q 22. What is a Karyotype?

    Ans. A Karyotype is the specific arrangement of an individual’s chromosomes, which can vary in size, staining properties, centromere location, and more.

    Q 23. What are the different types of chromosomes based on the centromere’s location?

    Ans. Chromosomes can be classified as telocentric, acrocentric, submetacentric, or metacentric, depending on the centromere’s position.

    Q 24. What are the common shapes of chromosomes?

    Ans. Chromosomes often have shapes resembling “i,” “j,” or “v.”

    Q 25. What is the composition of chromosomes?

    Ans. Chromosomes are composed of DNA and protein, with about 40% DNA and 60% protein.

    Q 26. How many nucleotides are in a typical human chromosome?

    Ans. A typical human chromosome contains approximately 140 million nucleotides.

    Q 27. How much information is in one chromosome?

    Ans. The information in one chromosome would fill around 280 printed books of 1000 pages each, with each nucleotide representing a word and 500 words per page.

    Q 28. What is the length of a straight DNA strand from a single chromosome?

    Ans. If a DNA strand from a single chromosome were stretched in a straight line, it would be about 5 centimeters long.

    Q 29. What are nucleosomes?

    Ans. Nucleosomes are complexes where DNA duplexes coil around a core of eight histone proteins, occurring every 200 nucleotides.

    Q 30. Why are histones positively charged?

    Ans. Histones are positively charged due to an abundance of basic amino acids like arginine and lysine, which attract them to the negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA.

    Q 31. What are supercoils of DNA?

    Ans. Supercoils are higher-order coils formed when a string of nucleosomes wraps up further, guided by histone cores.

    Q 32. What is heterochromatin?

    Ans. Heterochromatin refers to highly condensed portions of chromatin where DNA is not exposed.

    Q 33. Define the chromosome theory of inheritance.

    Ans. The chromosome theory of inheritance states that genes are physical units located on chromosomes, with one member of a gene pair on one homologous chromosome and the other on the other homologous chromosome.

    Q 34. What is a sex-linked trait?

    Ans. A trait determined by a gene on the X chromosome is known as a sex-linked trait.

    Q 35. Who repeated Griffith’s experiments?

    Ans. Oswald Avery, along with Colin Macleod and Maclyn McCarty, repeated Griffith’s experiments in 1944, characterizing the Transforming principle.

    Q 36. Why are Hershey and Chase famous?

    Ans. In 1952, Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase conducted experiments with bacteriophages T2, providing evidence supporting Avery’s conclusions.

    Q 37. What are the main components of DNA?

    Ans. The main components of DNA are phosphate (PO4) groups, five-carbon sugars, and nitrogen-containing bases, including purines (adenine, A, and guanine, G) and pyrimidines (thymine, T, and cytosine, C). RNA contains uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).

    Q 38. What is the structure of a typical nucleotide?

    Ans. A typical nucleotide consists of a nitrogen base attached to carbon 1 of a pentose sugar, with a phosphate group attached to carbon 5 and a free hydroxyl group (-OH) at carbon 3.

    Q 39. What is a phosphodiester bond or linkage?

    Ans. A phosphodiester bond is the linkage between two groups in a polynucleotide chain, formed by two ester (P-O-C) bonds with phosphate groups connecting two sugars.

    Q 40. What did Erwin Chargaff’s work reveal?

    Ans. Erwin Chargaff’s work showed that the amount of adenine in DNA always equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine always equals the amount of cytosine.

    Q 41. What is X-ray diffraction?

    Ans. X-ray diffraction involves bombarding a molecule with X-rays, resulting in a diffraction pattern when X-rays interact with atoms. This pattern can reveal the three-dimensional structure of a molecule.

    Q 42. Who prepared the X-ray diffraction of DNA?

    Ans. Rosalind Franklin prepared the X-ray diffraction pattern of DNA in Maurice Wilkins’ laboratory, where DNA fibers were prepared.

    Q 43. What does X-ray diffraction of DNA suggest?

    Ans. X-ray diffraction of DNA suggests that the DNA molecule has a helical structure with a diameter of 2 nanometers (nm) and a complete helical turn every 3.4 nm.

    Q 44. Who proposed the double helical structure of DNA?

    Ans. James Watson and Francis Crick proposed the double helical structure of DNA in 1953.

    Q 45. Define replication?

    Ans. Replication is the process by which DNA gives rise to a copy of itself.

    Q 46. What is Semi-conservative replication of DNA?

    Ans. In semi-conservative replication, the two DNA strands separate, and each acts as a template for the assembly of new nucleotides, resulting in two new duplexes.

    Q 47. Define Conservative Replication of DNA?

    Ans. Conservative replication suggests that the parental double helix remains intact and generates entirely new DNA copies.

    Q 48. What is Dispersive Replication of DNA?

    Ans. Dispersive replication suggests that parental DNA becomes dispersed throughout the new copies, with each strand in the daughter molecules consisting of a mixture of old and new DNA.

    Q 49. What was the work of Meselson and Stahl?

    Ans. Meselson and Stahl in 1958 evaluated three hypotheses of DNA replication using their famous experiment.

    Q 50. What is the role of DNA polymerase I?

    Ans. DNA polymerase I plays a supporting role in DNA replication and is a relatively small enzyme.

    Q 51. What is the role of DNA polymerase II?

    Ans. DNA polymerase II plays a role in DNA repair.

    Q 52. What is the role of DNA polymerase III?

    Ans. DNA polymerase III is a dimmer enzyme responsible for replicating one DNA strand during replication.

    Q 53. What is the direction of replication on a growing DNA strand?

    Ans. Replication proceeds in the 5′ to 3′ direction on a growing DNA strand, as DNA polymerase III can only add nucleotides to the 3′ end.

    Q 54. What is the role of DNA ligase?

    Ans. DNA ligase attaches the repaired fragments of the lagging strand during DNA replication.

    Q 55. What is Alkaptonuria?

    Ans. Alkaptonuria is a disorder in which patients excrete urine containing homogentisic acid, turning the urine black upon exposure to air. It results from the inability to break down homogentisic acid, a process that occurs in normal individuals.

    Q 56. Why are Beadle and Tatum famous?

    Ans. Beadle and Tatum’s experiments with Neurospora (a fungus) led to the conclusion that each gene encodes the structure of one enzyme, known as the “one gene, one enzyme” hypothesis.

    Q 57. Why is Frederick Sanger famous?

    Ans. Frederick Sanger’s 1953 work involved describing the complete sequence of amino acids in insulin, demonstrating for the first time that proteins have definable sequences of amino acids.

    Q 58. Why is Vernon Ingram famous?

    Ans. Vernon Ingram is famous for discovering the molecular basis of sickle cell anemia in 1956, showing that it results from a change from glutamic acid to valine at position 6 in one chain of hemoglobin.

    Q 59. What is a Promotor?

    Ans. A promotor is a binding site at the beginning of a gene where RNA polymerase initiates transcription.

    Q 60. What is translation?

    Ans. Translation is the process of converting the nucleotide sequence of mRNA into an amino acid sequence in a polypeptide.

    Q 61. What is a codon?

    Ans. A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides on an mRNA strand that codes for a specific amino acid.

    Q 62. What are the template and coding strands of DNA?

    Ans. The template strand, also known as the antisense strand, is the DNA strand used for transcription. The coding strand, or sense strand, is the opposite strand.

    Q 63. What is the role of RNA polymerase?

    Ans. RNA polymerase is responsible for synthesizing RNA from DNA in the 5′ to 3′ direction during transcription.

    Q 64. What is a core enzyme?

    Ans. The core enzyme is RNA polymerase without its sigma subunit.

    Q 65. How many binding sites are in the promoter of prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

    Ans. In prokaryotes, the promoter has two binding sites, TTGACA and TATAAT, located at -35 and -10 positions. In eukaryotes, these sites are at -25 and -70 positions.

    Q 66. What is the stop signal for transcription?

    Ans. The stop signal for transcription is a series of GC base pairs followed by a series of AT base pairs, forming a GC hairpin followed by four or more U ribonucleotides, causing RNA polymerase to stop.

    Q 67. Why are a cap and a tail added to mRNA?

    Ans. A cap and a tail are added to mRNA to ensure stability during its journey to the ribosome.

    Q 68. What is the genetic code?

    Ans. The genetic code is a combination of three nucleotides in DNA that specifies a particular amino acid.

    Q 69. What are chromosomal aberrations?

    Ans. Chromosomal aberrations are changes in the number or structure of chromosomes.

    Q 70. What are Point mutations?

    Ans. Point mutations are mutational changes that affect the DNA sequence, typically involving a small number of base pairs.

    Q 71. Can you provide examples of point mutations?

    Ans. Examples of point mutations include Sickle cell anemia and Phenylketonuria.

    Q 72. What is Sickle cell anemia?

    Ans. Sickle cell anemia results from a point mutation that changes glutamic acid to valine at position 6 in the hemoglobin B chain, reducing its ability to carry oxygen.

    Q 73. What is Phenylketonuria?

    Ans. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder caused by a defective enzyme, phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to the accumulation of phenylalanine in cells and resulting in mental retardation in infancy.

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  • 2nd Year Biology Chapter 19 : Growth Development

    2nd year Chapter 19: Growth Development Short and Simple Question & Answer

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    Q1. What are growing points?

    Ans. Growing points are specific regions in higher plants where growth occurs, such as the shoot apex and root tip.

    Q2. What is secondary growth?

    Ans. Secondary growth is the increase in thickness of plants due to the growth of secondary tissues, like secondary xylem and phloem, by the intercalary or vascular cambium.

    Q3. Name the factors influencing the rate of growth?

    Ans. The rate of growth is influenced by various external factors like temperature, light, oxygen, and internal factors like hormones, water, and vitamins.

    Q4. What is correlation in plant development?

    Ans. Correlation in plant development refers to the reciprocal relationship between the growth of different organs in different directions, leading to the development of various plant parts.

    Q5. What is embryology?

    Ans. Embryology is the study of the growth and differentiation undergone by an organism from a single fertilized egg into a complex, independent living being.

    Q6. What is discoidal cleavage in bird eggs?

    Ans. Discoidal cleavage is a type of cell division that occurs in bird eggs, primarily at the surface of the yolk at the animal pole.

    Q7. What role do cytokinins play in apical dominance? Ans. Cytokinins play a role in releasing lateral buds from apical dominance when applied directly to the inhibited bud.

    Q8. What are negative physiological changes defined as?

    Ans. Negative physiological changes are often associated with aging in the body.

    Q9. What factors disturb the normal process of development?

    Ans. Abnormalities inherited from parents, chromosome or gene-related abnormalities, environmental factors, and metabolic defects can disturb the normal process of development.

    Q10. Define embryonic induction?

    Ans. Embryonic induction refers to the influence of notochordal cells on ectodermal cells to become the nervous system during development.

    Q11. Differentiate between growth and development?

    Ans. Growth is the permanent increase in size, while development encompasses the progressive changes that occur before an organism reaches adulthood.

    Q12. What is meristem?

    Ans. Meristems are young tissues or cell populations in plants that have the potential to divide and contribute to growth.

    Q13. What is open growth in plants?

    Ans. Open growth in plants refers to the continuous addition of new organs like branches, leaves, and roots, enlarging from the tips of roots and shoots throughout the plant’s life.

    Q14. What are Apical Meristems?

    Ans. Apical meristems are found at the tips of roots and shoots and are responsible for extending the plant body, playing a key role in primary growth.

    Q15. What are Intercalary Meristems?

    Ans. Intercalary meristems are located at the bases of internodes in many plants and contribute to the production of leaves and flowers; they are temporary in nature.

    Q16. What are Lateral meristems?

    Ans. Lateral meristems are cylinders of dividing cells found in dicots and gymnosperms, such as vascular and cork cambium. They are involved in secondary growth and increasing stem and root diameter.

    Q17. Define differentiation in plants?

    Ans. Differentiation in plants refers to the process of forming specialized tissues.

    Q18. What did Thimann and Skoog discover?

    Ans. Thimann and Skoog discovered that apical dominance is caused by auxin diffusing from the apical bud.

    Q19. Differentiate between inhibitory and compensatory effects of auxin?

    Ans. Inhibitory effects of auxin from the apical bud inhibit the growth of lateral shoots or buds, while compensatory effects occur when removing the apex releases lateral buds from apical dominance.

    Q20. What is the incubation temperature for chick eggs?

    Ans. The incubation temperature for chick eggs in artificial incubators is usually maintained between 36-38 degrees Celsius, allowing the chick to complete development and hatch on the twenty-first day.

    A21. Cleavage refers to a series of mitotic divisions in the early stages of embryo development.

    Q22. Define Morula?

    Ans. Morula is a rounded, closely packed mass of blastomeres formed during cleavage.

    Q23. What is Blastula?

    Ans. Blastula is the stage following the morula, characterized by the presence of a segmentation cavity or blastocoel.

    Q24. What is blastoderm?

    Ans. Blastoderm is the discoidal cap of cells located above the blastocoel.

    Q25. What is the zone of junction in developing chick embryos?

    Ans. The zone of junction is the marginal area of the blastoderm where cells remain attached to and closely adhere to the yolk.

    Q26. Define Gastrulation?

    Ans. Gastrulation is a process involving the movement and rearrangement of cells in the embryo.

    Q27. Which two layers are formed from the blastoderm during gastrulation?

    Ans. Gastrulation results in the formation of two layers: the upper epiblast and the lower hypoblast.

    Q28. What is the area pellucida?

    Ans. The area pellucida refers to the central cells of the blastoderm, which can be separated from the yolk, creating a translucent area.

    Q29. What is the area opaca?

    Ans. The area opaca is the peripheral part of the blastoderm where cells remain unseparated from the yolk.

    Q30. What is the primitive streak in chick embryos?

    Ans. The primitive streak is a midline thickening formed in chick embryos, where mesodermal cells migrate medially and caudally, representing the dorsal and lateral lips of the blastopore.

    Q31. What is the primitive node?

    Ans. The primitive node is an aggregation of notochordal cells located at the anterior end of the primitive streak.

    Q32. What is Hensen’s node?

    Ans. Hensen’s node is a local thickening at the cephalic end of the primitive streak in chick embryos.

    Q33. What is the germ wall? Ans. The germ wall is the area where expanding germ layers merge with the underlying yolk in chick embryos.

    Q34. What is the gastrocoele?

    Ans. The gastrocoele is the cavity within the gastrula.

    Q35. How many layers does the lateral plate mesoderm split into?

    Ans. The lateral plate mesoderm splits into two layers: the somatic mesoderm and the splanchnic mesoderm, with a space between them.

    Q36. What is the coelom?

    Ans. The coelom is the cavity formed between the somatic and splanchnic mesoderm layers.

    Q37. What is a Neurula?

    Ans. The term “neurula” is used to describe the stage of development during the formation of the nervous system.

    Q38. How is the neural plate formed?

    Ans. The neural plate forms on the dorsal surface of the gastrula, becoming a band that thickens and develops into the neural plate.

    Q39. What is the neurocoel?

    Ans. The neurocoel is the cavity formed within the neural tube, which represents the central nervous system.

    Q40. How is the neural tube formed in chick embryos?

    Ans. The neural plate sinks and the neural folds grow toward each other, ultimately fusing in the mid-dorsal line to create the neural tube.

    Q41. What are neuropores?

    Ans. Neuropores are small openings at each end of the neural tube, known as the anterior and posterior neuropores, which later close.

    Q42. What is the neurocoel?

    Ans. The neurocoel is the cavity enclosed within the neural tube, representing the central nervous system.

    Q43. What was Hans Dietrich’s work?

    Ans. Hans Dietrich separated sea urchin eggs at the two-cell stage and observed that both halves developed into normal larvae, highlighting the concept of regulative development.

    Q44. What is Acetabularia?

    Ans. Acetabularia is a multicellular alga with a structure consisting of a rhizoid, a long stalk, and an umbrella-shaped cap at the top.

    Q45. What is primary induction?

    Ans. Primary induction refers to the role of the dorsal lip area as the primary organizer in inducing secondary embryo development in the host.

    Q46. Define regeneration?

    Ans. Regeneration is the ability of an organism to regrow or recover lost or injured body parts.

    Q47. What are neoblasts?

    Ans. Neoblasts are unspecialized cells found in flatworms like Planaria that can migrate to the site of amputation and differentiate into specialized cell types for regeneration.

    Q48. Define abnormal development?

    Ans. Abnormal development refers to the situation where certain body parts do not develop normally under unfavorable conditions.

    Q49. Define Teratology?

    Ans. Teratology is the branch of biology that deals with abnormal development and the causes behind such developments.

    Q50. How is the normal process of development disturbed?

    Ans. The normal process of development can be disturbed by factors such as abnormalities inherited from parents, chromosome or gene-related abnormalities, environmental factors, and metabolic defects.

    Q51. What are Teratogens?

    Ans. Teratogens are environmental factors that can cause or contribute to abnormal development, such as ionizing radiations like X-rays.

    Q52. What is Microcephaly?

    Ans. Microcephaly is a birth defect where individuals are born with a small skull.

    Q53. What is Cleft palate?

    Ans. Cleft palate is an abnormality where individuals have a split or opening in the upper lip or a harelip.

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    For the 2nd year Biology Chapter 19 Introduction to Programming, this set of notes follows the new syllabus, as it is for all Punjab boards. Other boards offer notes that different from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the boards in Punjab.

    the purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.

  • 2nd Year Biology Chapter 18 : Reproduction

    2nd year Chapter 18: Reproduction Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 2nd year  Biology Chapter 18 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 2nd year Biology Chapter 18 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Biology Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q1: What happens to ovulation and menstruation during pregnancy?

    Ans: Ovulation and menstruation do not occur during pregnancy.

    Q2: What’s the difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis in humans?

    Ans: Oogenesis produces one egg through meiotic division, while spermatogenesis produces four sperm from a primary spermatocyte.

    Q3: How is a seed formed?

    Ans: A seed is formed after fertilization of an egg in an ovule.

    Q4: Why are seeds important in a plant’s life cycle?

    Ans: Seeds enable the embryo to survive adverse conditions like scarcity or low temperature.

    Q5: Explain isomorphic and heteromorphic alternation of generations?

    Ans: Isomorphic alternation involves similar sporophyte and gametophyte, often seen in green algae. Heteromorphic alternation involves different-looking sporophyte and gametophyte, found in all plants.

    Q6: What’s the significance of the pollen tube’s evolution?

    Ans: The pollen tube safely transports male gametes to the female gamete in the ovule, aiding seed plants’ success in harsh environments.

    Q7: Why are neonates’ eyes affected by STDs?

    Ans: If a woman with an STD gives birth, the infected birth canal can lead to eye infections in the newborn.

    Q8: Define seed dormancy and its importance?Ans: Seed dormancy is a rest period for the embryo, crucial for surviving unfavorable conditions like water scarcity or low temperatures.

    Q9: How do identical and fraternal twins differ?

    Ans: Identical twins develop from one embryo splitting, while fraternal twins result from two separately fertilized eggs.

    Q10: Explain the difference between viviparous and ovoviviparous?

    Ans: Viviparous animals have internal embryo development and give live birth. Ovoviviparous animals internally develop embryos in shelled eggs that hatch upon completion.

    Q11: What is lactation, and what hormones stimulate it?

    Ans: Lactation is the production of milk from mammary glands. Hormones like prolactin and human placental lactogen stimulate it.

    Q12: Which maternal hormones trigger birth?

    Ans: A decrease in maternal progesterone and an increase in oxytocin trigger the birth process.

    Q13: What is the placenta?

    Ans: In placental mammals, the placenta is tissue that facilitates material exchange between the mother and fetus.

    Q14: Define after birth?

    Ans: After birth refers to the expulsion of the placenta and fetal remains from the uterus shortly after childbirth.

    Q15: What is a test tube baby?

    Ans: A test tube baby is born from an egg fertilized outside the body and then implanted in the mother’s uterus.

    Q16: What are STDs, and can you name some?

    Ans: STDs are infections transmitted through sexual contact. Examples include gonorrhea, syphilis, genital herpes, and AIDS.

    Q17: Explain one bacterial and one viral STD?

    Ans: Syphilis, caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, can damage reproductive organs and more. Genital herpes, caused by herpes simplex type 2 virus, affects the genital area with sores and ulcers.

    Q18: What is AIDS?

    Ans: AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) results from HIV infection and weakens the immune system, making individuals susceptible to fatal infections.

    Q19: Define parthenocarpy and how it can be induced?

    Ans: Parthenocarpy is fruit development without fertilization or seed formation. It can be induced artificially by applying auxins.

    Q20: Name two Long Day Plants (LDPs) and two Short Day Plants (SDPs)?

    Ans: LDPs include henbane and cabbage, while SDPs include cocklebur and soybean.

    Q21: What is apomixis?

    Ans: Apomixis is a form of parthenogenesis in flowering plants, where a diploid cell in the ovule develops into a functional embryo without the need for a male gamete.

    Q22: What is an estrous cycle?

    Ans: An estrous cycle is a reproductive cycle found in most female mammals, except for humans. It involves changes in estrogen production that prepare the uterus for conception.

    Q23: Define Menopause?

    Ans: Menopause is the complete cessation of the menstrual cycle in women.

    Q24: What is ovulation, and where does fertilization occur in humans?

    Ans: Ovulation is the release of an egg from a follicle. In humans, fertilization commonly occurs in the proximal part of the oviduct (fallopian tube).

    Q25: Name fetal hormones involved in triggering birth?

    Ans: ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone) released from the fetal pituitary stimulates the fetal adrenal gland to produce corticosteroids, which enter the maternal bloodstream, leading to a decrease in progesterone production. This decrease triggers the release of oxytocin.

    Q26: What is phytochrome, and what are its types?

    Ans: Phytochromes are light-sensitive proteins involved in flowering. They exist in two forms: P660 (active in response to red light) and P730 (active in response to far-red light).

    Q27: What is reproduction, and why is it important?

    Ans: Reproduction is the process of producing new generations and maintaining a species. It is crucial for the survival and continuity of a species or population.

    Q28: What is vernalization?

    Ans: Vernalization is the treatment of plants with low temperatures to stimulate flowering.

    Q29: Define cloning?

    Ans: Cloning is a type of asexual reproduction in which genetically identical copies of an organism are produced through genetic engineering.

    Q30: Differentiate between oviparous and viviparous animals?

    Ans: Oviparous animals lay externally developed eggs with protective shells, while viviparous animals internally develop embryos and give birth to live offspring.

    Q31: What is tissue culturing?

    Ans: Tissue culturing is the cultivation of tissues for reproducing new, genetically identical varieties.

    Q32: Explain the disease gonorrhea?

    Ans: Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It affects the mucous membranes of the urinogenital tract, and newborns can acquire eye infections if they pass through an infected birth canal.

    Q33: What are spermatophytes?

    Ans: Spermatophytes are seed-producing plants.

    Q34: What is the function of germinating pollen grain?

    Ans: A germinating pollen grain facilitates safe gamete transfer, contributes to fertilization, and is a source of auxins, which stimulate tissues in the style and ovary for fruit development.

    Q35: What is diploid parthenogenesis?

    Ans: Diploid parthenogenesis occurs when egg-producing cells undergo a modified form of meiosis, retaining a diploid number of chromosomes, leading to the development of female offspring.

    Q36: What are fraternal twins or triplets?

    Ans: Fraternal twins or triplets result from the simultaneous fertilization of two or more separately released eggs, leading to offspring with different genetic combinations.

    Q37: What do you mean by Hermaphrodite?

    Ans: Hermaphrodite refers to organisms that possess both male and female reproductive organs within the same individual.

    Q38: What is fertilization?

    Ans: Fertilization is the process that involves the union of gametes, typically leading to the formation of a zygote.

    Q39: What is ovoviviparous condition?

    Ans: Ovoviviparous condition occurs in certain mammals, like the duckbill platypus, where internal fertilization leads to the development of offspring inside shelled eggs. The eggs are laid, and the offspring hatch from them.

    Q40: Which method of reproduction is considered more primitive: asexual or sexual?

    Ans: Asexual reproduction is generally considered more primitive than sexual reproduction.

    Q41: What is asexual reproduction?

    Ans: Asexual reproduction involves a single parental organism producing offspring through mitotic cell division, resulting in genetically identical offspring.

    Q42: What are different methods of asexual reproduction?

    Ans: Various methods of asexual reproduction include fission, sporulation, budding, vegetative propagation, artificial propagation, parthenogenesis, and apomixis.

    Q43: What is sexual reproduction?

    Ans: Sexual reproduction involves two parents, with specialized sex cells uniting to produce a fertilized egg, leading to genetic diversity in offspring.

    Q44: What is fruit set?

    Ans: Fruit set refers to the retention of the ovary, which becomes a fruit after fertilization. The continued production of auxins after fertilization is essential for fruit development.

    Q45: Define climacteric?

    Ans: Climacteric is a burst of respiratory activity associated with the ripening of fruits. It often involves ethylene production, which aids in fruit ripening.

    Q46: What is photoperiodism?

    Ans: Photoperiodism refers to the ability of organisms to sense and respond to variations in day length (photoperiod).

    Q47: What is florigen?

    Ans: Florigen is a hormone found in leaves that travels through the phloem to floral buds, initiating the flowering process.

    Q48: Name some advantages of cloning?

    Ans: Advantages of cloning include the production of desirable animals, the ability to conduct quantitative studies of hormone and drug effects, and the generation of identical offspring.

    Q49: Name some disadvantages of cloning?

    Ans: Disadvantages of cloning include potential environmental hazards associated with cloned organisms and incomplete knowledge of clone development.

    Q50: What are external genitalia in human males?

    Ans: The external genitalia in human males include the testes, which are located outside the body within the scrotum.

    Q51: What are spermatocytes and spermatids?

    Ans: Spermatocytes are the cells that result from the differentiation of spermatogonia in seminiferous tubules. They undergo meiotic division to form secondary spermatocytes and spermatids, which ultimately develop into sperm.

    Q52: What are Sertoli cells?

    Ans: Sertoli cells are present in the testes and secrete fluid that provides a liquid medium, protection, and nourishment for sperm while they are in the seminiferous tubules.

    Q53: What is testosterone?

    Ans: Testosterone is a hormone produced by the interstitial cells of the testes. It is essential for successful sperm production and the development of male secondary sexual characteristics during puberty.

    Q54: What are the various parts of the female reproductive system?

    Ans: The female reproductive system includes the ovaries, oviducts (fallopian tubes), uterus, and external genitalia.

    Q55: What is FSH?

    Ans: FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) is a hormone released by the pituitary gland at the onset of puberty. It stimulates the development of primary follicles in the ovaries.

    Q56: What is a fetus?

    Ans: A fetus is the term used to describe the developing human organism from the third month of pregnancy onward. It is during this stage that most major organs begin to form.

    Q57: What is the average blood loss during delivery?

    Ans: The average blood loss during delivery is approximately 350 cm^3.

    Q58: What is syphilis?

    Ans: Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can damage the reproductive organs, eyes, bones, joints, central nervous system, heart, and skin, and is primarily transmitted through sexual contact.

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    the purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.

  • 2nd Year Biology Chapter 17 : Coordination & Control

    2nd year Chapter 17: Coordination & Control Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 2nd year  Biology Chapter 17 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 2nd year Biology Chapter 17 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Biology Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q 1. What is coordination?

    Ans. Coordination encompasses the organization, regulation, integration, and control in the structure and function of complex multicellular animals.

    Q 2. Why does Chlorosis occur?

    Ans. Chlorosis typically results from a lack of essential mineral nutrients in the soil.

    Q 3. How is coordination achieved in higher animals?

    Ans. Coordination in higher animals is achieved through nervous coordination and chemical coordination.

    Q 4. What are photoreceptors?

    Ans. Photoreceptors are sensory cells that respond to light stimuli, such as rods and cones in the eyes.

    Q 5. What is Neuroglia?

    Ans. Neuroglia refers to non-neuronal cells in the nervous system, making up a significant portion of it in higher animals, including humans.

    Q 6. What are cranial nerves?

    Ans. Cranial nerves are the 12 pairs of nerves that originate from or lead to the brain in humans.

    Q 7. How does nicotine affect coordination?

    Ans. Nicotine affects coordination by stimulating nerve impulses, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, digestive tract mobility, and potentially causing side effects like vomiting and diarrhea.

    Q 8. What do ethologists think about animal responses?

    Ans. Early ethologists believed that animals sometimes instinctively respond to specific and often complex stimuli referred to as “sign stimuli.”

    Q 9. Define learning behavior?

    Ans. Learning behavior is the process that leads to adaptive changes in individual behavior due to experience, as defined by Thorpe.

    Q 10. Who studied operant conditioning or conditioned reflex type II?

    Ans. Operant conditioning, also known as conditioned reflex type II, was studied by psychologists like Thorndike and B.F. Skinner.

    Q 11. How can neuron fibers and cell bodies be stimulated?

    Ans. Neuron fibers and cell bodies can be stimulated by small electric shocks, mechanical forces, chemicals, light, and changes in temperature.

    Q 12. How do plants respond to stimuli?

    Ans. Plants respond to stimuli by regulating their growth and development and controlling their body functions through the action of plant hormones.

    Q 13. What are etiolated plants?

    Ans. Etiolated plants are those that grow extremely long and fail to form sufficient chlorophyll when grown without light.

    Q 14. What is Chlorosis?

    Ans. Chlorosis is the condition in which many plants turn yellow due to insufficient chlorophyll production.

    Q 15. What are calluses in plants?

    Ans. Calluses in plants are undifferentiated masses of tissue that often form at wound sites.

    Q 16. What are galls in plants?

    Ans. Galls in plants are organized growths induced by parasites or bacteria, typically showing less differentiation compared to other plant tissues.

    Q 17. Define biorhythms or biological rhythms?

    Ans. Biorhythms, or biological rhythms, are regular intervals of behavioral activities that occur in living organisms.

    Q 18. What are diurnal rhythms?

    Ans. Diurnal rhythms, also known as circadian rhythms, are biorhythms with a periodicity of approximately 24 hours, reflecting daily patterns of activity.

    Q 19. What is Circaannual?

    Ans. Circaannual refers to biorhythms with a periodicity of less than or around 365 days.

    Q 20. What are plant hormones?

    Ans. Plant hormones are special substances produced by plants that influence their growth and responses to various stimuli.

    Q 21. Name different plant hormones?

    Ans. Plant hormones include auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid, and ethylene.

    Q 22. What are two functions of gibberellins?

    Ans. Functions of gibberellins:

    1. Promote cell enlargement when auxins are present.
    2. Stimulate leaf and fruit growth.

    Q 23. What is the use of GA3?

    Ans. GA3 is used in the brewing industry to stimulate amylase production in barley, promoting malting.

    Q 24. What are two functions of cytokinins?

    Ans. Functions of cytokinins:

    1. Promote stem growth through cell division in apical meristems and cambium.
    2. Induce bud initiation.

    Q 25. What is the commercial application of cytokinins?

    Ans. Cytokinins are used to delay the aging of fresh leafy crops like cabbage and lettuce, keeping them fresh. They can also break seed dormancy.

    Q 26. What are two functions of abscisic acid?

    Ans. Functions of abscisic acid:

    1. Inhibits stem growth, particularly during physiological stress like drought or water-logging.
    2. Promotes bud dormancy.

    Q 27. What is the commercial application of abscisic acid?

    Ans. Abscisic acid can be sprayed on tree crops to regulate fruit drop at the end of the season, eliminating the need for picking over a long time.

    Q 28. What is the commercial application of ethylene?

    Ans. Ethylene induces flowering in pineapple, stimulates ripening in tomatoes and citrus fruit, and enhances latex flow in rubber plants.

    Q 29. What is nervous coordination?

    Ans. Nervous coordination involves specialized cells or neurons forming a network directly or through the central nervous system, connecting receptors (stimuli detectors) and effectors (response organs).

    Q 30. What are the elements of the nervous system?

    Ans. The elements of the nervous system include receptors, neurons, and effectors.

    Q 31. What are Receptors?

    Ans. Receptors detect changes in the external and internal environment and can be cells, neuron endings, or receptor organs.

    Q 32. What are chemoreceptors?

    Ans. Chemoreceptors are receptors stimulated by chemicals and include those for smell, taste, blood CO2 levels, oxygen, glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids.

    Q 33. What are mechanoreceptors?

    Ans. Mechanoreceptors detect touch, pressure, hearing, and equilibrium stimuli.

    Q 34. What are thermo-receptors?

    Ans. Thermo-receptors respond to cold and warmth.

    Q 35. What are nociceptors?

    Ans. Nociceptors are undifferentiated nerve endings that produce the sensation of pain.

    Q 36. What is modality of sensation?

    Ans. Modality of sensation refers to each type of primary sensory experience, such as pain, touch, sight, or sound.

    Q 37. What are Meissner’s corpuscles?

    Ans. Meissner’s corpuscles are encapsulated nerve endings located in papillae, particularly in the fingertips. They serve as touch receptors.

    Q 38. What are Pacinian corpuscles?

    Ans. Pacinian corpuscles are deep-lying, encapsulated nerve endings that respond to deep pressure stimuli and likely play a role in sensing vibration.

    Q 39. What is Dendron or are dendrites?

    Ans. Dendron is the cytoplasmic process carrying impulses toward the cell body, while dendrites are smaller fibers that perform the same function when present in multiple.

    Q 40. What are Axons?

    Ans. Axons are the processes that conduct impulses away from the cell body, and they can be quite long, exceeding a meter in some neurons.

    Q 41. What are Nissl’s granules?

    Ans. Nissl’s granules are clusters of ribosomes associated with rough endoplasmic reticulum, involved in protein synthesis, and present in the cell body of neurons.

    Q 42. What is Cell body or soma?

    Ans. The cell body or soma is the main nutritional part of a nerve cell, responsible for the biosynthesis of materials essential for neuron growth and maintenance.

    Q 43. Name different types of neurons?

    Ans. There are three functional types of neurons in mammals: sensory, associative (intermediate/relay), and motor neurons.

    Q 44. What are Sensory Neurons?

    Ans. Sensory neurons carry nerve impulses from receptors to the brain or spinal cord, characterized by a single, elongated dendron and a shorter axon.

    Q 45. What are Motor Neurons?

    Ans. Motor neurons transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effectors throughout the body, featuring a long axon and several small dendrites.

    Q 46. What are Associative Neurons?

    Ans. Associative neurons exclusively exist in the spinal cord and brain, serving as intermediate links between numerous sensory and motor neurons.

    Q 47. What are Effectors?

    Ans. Effectors are structures that respond when stimulated by impulses from motor neurons, including glands (for secretion) and muscles (for contraction).

    Q 48. What is a reflex arc?

    Ans. A reflex arc is the pathway of impulse transmission during a reflex action, typically an involuntary response. It involves receptors, sensory neurons, associative neurons, and motor neurons directing the stimulus from receptors to effectors.

    Q 49. Define nerve impulse?

    Ans. A nerve impulse is an electrochemical wave that travels along the length of a neuron, involving chemical reactions and the movement of ions across the cell membrane.

    Q 50. Define electrical potential and membrane potential?

    Ans. Electrical potential measures the capacity to perform electrical work. The electrical potential across a cell membrane is known as membrane potential.

    Q 51. What is resting membrane potential?

    Ans. Resting membrane potential is the electrical difference across a neuron’s cell membrane when it is at rest. Typically, the outside is more positively charged than the inside.

    Q 52. What is active membrane potential?

    Ans. Active membrane potential occurs briefly when a nerve impulse initiates, replacing the resting membrane potential. It represents the impulse in progress.

    Q 53. What is salutatory impulse?

    Ans. In myelinated neurons, the impulse jumps from node to node (node of Ranvier), known as salutatory impulse, which speeds up transmission.

    Q 54. What is a synapse?

    Ans. A synapse is a microscopic gap that exists between two neurons, where no direct cytoplasmic connection occurs. It’s the contact point for nerve impulse transmission.

    Q 55. How does a nerve impulse pass from one neuron to another through the synapse?

    Ans. A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another across the synapse using chemical messengers called neurotransmitters.

    Q 56. What are neurotransmitters?Provide examples.

    Ans. Neurotransmitters are chemicals released at the axon endings of neurons during synapses. Examples include acetylcholine, adrenaline, noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine.

    Q 57. What is Acetylcholine?

    Ans. Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter involved in synapses outside the central nervous system.

    Q 58. What are the different designs of nervous systems in the animal kingdom?

    Ans. Nervous system designs in the animal kingdom include diffused nervous systems in Cnidarians (e.g., Hydra) and centralized nervous systems found in more complex organisms from Platyhelminthes to chordates, including humans.

    Q 59. What are the main parts of the human nervous system?

    Ans. The main parts of the human nervous system are the Central Nervous System and the Peripheral Nervous System.

    Q 60. Name the two parts of the Central Nervous System?

    Ans. The Central Nervous System consists of the Brain and the Spinal Cord.

    Q 61. What is Cranium?

    Ans. The cranium is the part of the skull that protects the brain and neural arches of the vertebrae.

    Q 62. What are Meninges?

    Ans. Meninges are the triple layers of protective membranes located beneath the cranium, surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

    Q 63. What is Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

    Ans. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a fluid that bathes the neurons of the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning and protection against physical shocks.

    Q 64. Name different parts of the brain?

    Ans. The brain can be divided into the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.

    Q 65. Name various parts of the forebrain?

    Ans. The forebrain is divided into three functional parts:

    1. The thalamus
    2. The limbic system
    3. The cerebrum.

    Q 66. What is the function of Thalamus?

    Ans. The thalamus carries sensory information to the limbic system and cerebrum, including sensory input from auditory and visual pathways and from within the body.

    Q 67. How does the limbic system work?

    Ans. The limbic system works together to produce basic emotions, drives, and behaviors, including fear, rage, tranquility, hunger, thirst, pleasure, and sexual responses.

    Q 68. What are the various parts of the limbic system?

    Ans. The limbic system includes the hypothalamus, the amygdala, and the hippocampus, as well as nearby regions of the cerebrum.

    Q 69. What is the role of the Hypothalamus?

    Ans. The hypothalamus acts as a major coordinating center for controlling body temperature, hunger, the menstrual cycle, water balance, and the sleep-wake cycle.

    Q 70. What is the role of the Amygdala?

    Ans. The amygdala plays a role in producing sensations of pleasure, punishment, sexual arousal when stimulated, as well as feelings of fear and rage.

    Q 71. What is the function of the Hippocampus?

    Ans. The hippocampus is important in the formation of long-term memory and is required for learning.

    Q 72. What are cerebral hemispheres?

    Ans. Cerebral hemispheres are the two halves of the cerebrum. The left hemisphere controls the right side of the body, and the right hemisphere controls the left side.

    Q 73. What is corpus callosum?

    Ans. The corpus callosum is a large band of axons that connects the two cerebral hemispheres, enabling communication between them.

    Q 74. What is the cerebral cortex?

    Ans. The cerebral cortex is the outer region of the cerebrum with folds called convolutions, significantly increasing its surface area.

    Q 75. What is reticular formation?

    Ans. The midbrain contains the reticular formation, which acts as a relay center connecting the hindbrain with the forebrain. It screens and filters incoming sensory information before reaching higher brain centers.

    Q 76. Name different parts of the hindbrain?

    Ans. The hindbrain includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum.

    Q 77. What is the function of the Medulla?

    Ans. The medulla controls automatic functions like breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, and swallowing.

    Q 78. What is the role of the Pons?

    Ans. Neurons in the pons influence transitions between sleep and wakefulness and regulate the rate and pattern of breathing.

    Q 79. What is the role of the cerebellum?

    Ans. The cerebellum coordinates body movements, guiding smooth and accurate motions and body position. It is also involved in the learning and memory storage of behaviors.

    Q 80. What is the spinal cord?

    Ans. The spinal cord is a hollow cylindrical structure that extends from the medulla oblongata through the vertebral column. It contains a large number of neurons arranged in a specific pattern.

    Q 81. What is grey matter?

    Ans. Grey matter in the spinal cord consists of cell bodies and non-myelinated nerve fibers or tracts. It forms a butterfly-shaped structure in cross-section.

    Q 82. What is white matter?

    Ans. White matter in the spinal cord is composed of myelinated nerve fibers or tracts and is located in the outer portion of the cord.

    Q 83. What is the composition of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

    Ans. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of sensory neurons, motor neurons, ganglia, and nerves.

    Q 84. Are ganglia concentrations of cell bodies of neurons?

    Ans. Yes, ganglia are concentrations of cell bodies of neurons.

    Q 85. What are nerves?

    Ans. Nerves are bundles of axons or dendrites bounded by connective tissue. They can be sensory, mixed, or motor nerves depending on the direction of impulse they conduct.

    Q 86. What is chemical coordination?

    Ans. Chemical coordination is a form of coordination in which the body uses chemicals, such as hormones, to regulate various physiological processes.

    Q 87. What are spinal nerves?

    Ans. Spinal nerves are the 31 pairs of nerves that arise from the spinal cord. These nerves are mixed, containing both sensory and motor neurons.

    Q 88. What is the somatic nervous system?

    Ans. The somatic nervous system is a part of the peripheral nervous system responsible for controlling voluntary movements, which are under conscious control, and involves skeletal muscles.

    Q 89. Name the different parts of the autonomic nervous system?

    Ans. The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.

    Q 90. What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system?

    Ans. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the “fight or flight” response during emergency situations. It accelerates heart rate and inhibits digestive functions.

    Q 91. What is the parasympathetic nervous system?

    Ans. The parasympathetic nervous system promotes various internal responses such as contracting pupils, digestion of food, and slowing the heart rate.

    Q 92. Name a few nervous disorders?

    Ans. Nervous disorders include Parkinson’s disease, Addison’s disease, epilepsy, and Alzheimer’s disease.

    Q 93. What is Parkinson’s disease (paralysis agitans)?

    Ans. Parkinson’s disease is a nervous disorder characterized by symptoms like involuntary tremors, diminished motor power, and rigidity. It typically does not affect mental faculties and is associated with cell death in the brain area that produces dopamine.

    Q 94. What is epilepsy?

    Ans. Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by abrupt, transient symptoms of motor, sensory, psychic, or autonomic nature, often associated with changes in consciousness. It typically has its onset before age 30.

    Q 95. What is Alzheimer’s disease?

    Ans. Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive brain disorder characterized by the decline in brain function, affecting memory, thinking, and behavior. It may have a genetic component and can be influenced by factors such as high aluminum levels.

    Q 96. What are hormones?

    Ans. Hormones are chemical compounds produced by endocrine or ductless glands. These glands are found throughout the body and release hormones directly into the bloodstream. Hormones regulate various physiological processes.

    Q 97. Give two characteristics of hormones?

    Ans. Characteristics of hormones:

    1. They are released directly into the bloodstream.
    2. They are transported by the blood to target tissues, where they elicit specific responses.

    Q 98. What is the hypothalamus?

    Ans. The hypothalamus is a part of the forebrain. It plays a crucial role in converting sensory stimuli into hormonal responses.

    Q 99. What is the pituitary gland?

    Ans. The pituitary gland, or hypophysis cerebri, is a small, oval-shaped gland connected to the brain via a short stalk (the infundibulum). It consists of three lobes: anterior, median, and posterior.

    Q 100. Why is the pituitary gland called the “master gland”?

    Ans. The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is often referred to as the “master gland” because, in addition to producing primary hormones, it also releases trophic hormones that control the secretion of hormones in many other endocrine glands.

    Q 101. Name the different hormones released by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

    Ans. The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes the following hormones:

    • Somatotrophin
    • Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
    • Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
    • Gonadotrophic hormones: i) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and ii) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
    • Prolactin

    Q 102. Name the hormones released by the median lobe of the pituitary gland?

    Ans. The median lobe of the pituitary gland secretes melanophore-stimulating hormone.

    Q 103. Name the hormones released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

    Ans. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland releases two hormones:

    • Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin
    • Oxytocin

    Q 104. Give one function of thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine.

    Ans. Thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine increase the basal metabolic rate by stimulating the breakdown of glucose, releasing heat, and generating ATP.

    Q 105. What is the effect of an over-secretion of thyroxine?

    Ans. Excess thyroxine production leads to a condition called Graves’ disease. Symptoms include exophthalmic goiter and an increased basal metabolic rate. If prolonged, this can lead to cardiac failure.

    Q 106. What is cretinism?

    Ans. Cretinism is a condition that occurs in infants due to a deficiency of thyroxine. It results in a dwarfed appearance, coarse scanty hair, thick yellowish scaly skin, and mental retardation.

    Q 107. What is myxedema?

    Ans. Myxedema is a condition that occurs in adults due to a deficiency of thyroxine, often related to iodine shortage in the diet. Symptoms include neck swelling (goiter) and an increase in weight due to excess fat accumulation.

    Q 108. What is calcitonin?

    Ans. Calcitonin is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland in response to high calcium ion (Ca2+) concentration in the blood. It helps regulate calcium metabolism and its effects on the nervous system, skeleton, muscles, and blood.

    Q 109. What is the action of glucagon?

    Ans. Glucagon increases blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver and muscles. It also increases the rate of fat breakdown.

    Q 110. Name the hormones released by the adrenal gland?

    Ans. The adrenal gland produces two main types of hormones:

    • The adrenal medulla releases adrenaline and noradrenaline.
    • The adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone and androgenic hormones.

    Q 111. What is the function of aldosterone?

    Ans. Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone that conserves the level of sodium ions (Na+) in the body by preventing their loss from the kidney tubules.

    Q 112. What is the function of cortisol?

    Ans. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone that increases blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of protein and antagonizing the action of insulin.

    Q 113. What is the function of corticosterone?

    Ans. Corticosterone is both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid hormone. It increases blood glucose levels and regulates mineral ion balance.

    Q 114. What is Cushing’s disease?

    Ans. Cushing’s disease occurs when there is an excessive production of cortical hormones. Symptoms include excessive protein breakdown, muscular and bone weakness, high blood sugar levels similar to diabetes, and other metabolic disturbances.

    Q 115. What are androgens?

    Ans. Androgens are male sex hormones responsible for developing secondary male characteristics. Small amounts of androgens are secreted in both male and female adrenal glands.

    Q 116. What is gastrin?

    Ans. Gastrin is a hormone produced by the mucosa of the pyloric region of the stomach. It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice and is produced in response to protein-rich food in the stomach.

    Q 117. What is secretin?

    Ans. Secretin is a hormone produced in the duodenum when acidic food touches its lining. It stimulates the pancreas to release pancreatic juice and affects the rate of bile production in the liver.

    Q 118. Where are estrogen and progesterone produced?

    Ans. Estrogens are secreted by ripening follicles in response to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary gland. Progesterone is produced by the ruptured follicle in response to luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary.

    Q 119. What are seminiferous tubules and interstitial cells?

    Ans. Seminiferous tubules are coiled structures within the testes where spermatozoa develop. Interspersed between these tubules are interstitial cells, which produce gonadal hormones, such as testosterone.

    Q 120. Define feedback mechanism?

    Ans. A feedback mechanism is a form of interaction in which a controlling mechanism is influenced or regulated by the products of the reactions it is controlling.

    Q 121. What is behavior?

    Ans. Behavior refers to the actions and responses of an organism to stimuli. It encompasses all activities that animals engage in, such as flying, walking, eating, mating, and raising offspring.

    Q 122. What is innate behavior?

    Ans. Innate behavior comprises responses that are predetermined by specific nerve or cytoplasmic pathways in organisms. It is not learned and is typically present from birth. In plants, all behavior is considered innate.

    Q 123. What are kineses?

    Ans. Kineses are a type of behavior where an organism changes the speed of random movements, helping them adapt to their environment. For example, kineses may enable organisms to find a moist area necessary for their survival.

    Q 124. What are taxes?

    Ans. Taxes are directed movements in response to a stimulus, either towards (positive taxes) or away from (negative taxes) the stimulus.

    Q 125. What are instincts?

    Ans. Instincts, according to Darwin, are complex reflexes composed of units that are compatible with the mechanisms of inheritance. These reflexes have evolved together with other aspects of life through natural selection.

    Q 126. Define learning?

    Ans. Learning is a process that depends on an individual’s experiences throughout their life. It involves adaptive changes in behavior as a result of experience.

    Q 127. What is the innate releasing mechanism (IRM)?

    Ans. The innate releasing mechanism (IRM) is a built-in mechanism that recognizes sign stimuli, leading to selective responses to these stimuli.

    Q 128. What is imprinting?

    Ans. Imprinting is a form of learning in which an organism is briefly exposed to a stimulus, resulting in a long-lasting effect. It is well-known in birds like geese, ducks, and chickens.

    Q 129. What is habituation?

    Ans. Habituation is the simplest form of learning and involves modifying behavior through a reduction of response to repeated stimuli.

    Q 130. Define conditioning or conditioned reflex type I?

    Ans. Conditioning or conditioned reflex type I involves pairing an irrelevant stimulus with a natural primary stimulus that elicits an automatic response.

    Q 131. Define operant conditioning or conditioned reflex type II?

    Ans. Operant conditioning or conditioned reflex type II involves achieving a specific goal as a reward. It occurs through trial and error repetitions, eventually leading to the desired outcome.

    Q 132. What is latent learning?

    Ans. Latent learning involves the association of indifferent stimuli or situations without an immediately observable reward.

    Q 133. What is insight learning?

    Ans. Insight learning is an advanced form of behavioral modification in which insight or reasoning is applied to a novel situation.

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  • 2nd Year Biology Chapter 16 : Support & Movement

    2nd year Chapter 16: Support & Movement Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 2nd year  Biology Chapter 16 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 2nd year Biology Chapter 16 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Biology Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q 1. What do growth rings indicate?

    Ans. Growth rings indicate the age of a tree at the time it was cut, with one ring formed each year.

    Q 2. What is the function of heartwood?

    Ans. The function of heartwood is to accumulate chemicals like resins, oils, gums, and tannins, providing resistance to decay and insect attacks.

    Q 3. What are sleep movements?

    Ans. Sleep movements refer to the lowering of leaves in the evening and raising them in the morning, observed in plants like beans and some legumes.

    Q 4. What is Nyctinasty?

    Ans. Nyctinasty involves organ movements in response to external stimuli, driven by turgor and growth changes.

    Q 5. What is cartilage?

    Ans. Cartilage is a softer connective tissue that covers the ends of bones at joints, and provides support to flexible parts like the nose and external ears.

    Q 6. How many categories are joints classified into and what are they called?

    Ans. Joints are classified into three categories based on the amount of movement they allow:

    1. Immovable joints
    2. Slightly movable joints
    3. Freely movable joints

    Q 7. What is sciatica?

    Ans. Sciatica is characterized by stabbing pain radiating along the sciatic nerve, typically caused by injury to the proximal sciatic nerve due to reasons such as a fall, herniated disc, or improper injection administration into the buttock.

    Q 8. How many steps are involved in repairing broken bones? Name them?

    Ans. The repair process of a simple fracture takes place in four phases:

    1. Haematoma formation
    2. Callus formation
    3. Bony callus formation
    4. Remodelling

    Q 9. Why are heart muscles known as cardiac muscles?

    Ans. Cardiac muscles are the muscles of the heart, constituting most of the mass of the heart walls. They are also striated and involuntary, hence referred to as cardiac muscles.

    Q 10. What are digitigrades?

    Ans. Digitigrades are mammals that walk on their digits only, allowing them to run faster than plantigrade animals, such as rabbits and rodents.

    Q 11. What are cross bridges?

    Ans. Cross bridges are the heads of myosin that make links with actin during muscle contraction.

    Q 12. What is “Rigor Mortis”?

    Ans. Rigor Mortis is a condition that occurs after death when the amount of ATP in the body decreases, causing muscle bridges to remain firmly bound and resulting in the stiffening of the body.

    Q 13. Define sarcomere?

    Ans. A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive Z-lines and is the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber.

    Q 14. What are chondrocytes?

    Ans. Chondrocytes are the living cells of cartilage that secrete a flexible, elastic, non-living matrix, which surrounds the chondrocytes.

    Q 15. What is spondylosis?

    Ans. Spondylosis is a disease that causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joints.

    Q 16. What is a hydro-skeleton or hydrostatic skeleton?

    Ans. A hydro-skeleton, or hydrostatic skeleton, provides support and resistance to muscle contractions by using a fluid-filled gastrovascular cavity or coelom in some animals.

    Q 17. What is hyaline cartilage?

    Ans. Hyaline cartilage is the most abundant type of cartilage in the human body, typically found at movable joints.

    Q 18. What provides support in plants and animals?

    Ans. In plants, collenchymatous cells provide support to young plants, while sclerenchymatous cells support adult plants. In animals, muscles, cartilage, and bones offer support.

    Q 19. What is turgor pressure?

    Ans. Turgor pressure is the internal hydrostatic pressure that develops when living cells of the epidermis, cortex, and pith take in water by osmosis, keeping them rigid and resistant to bending.

    Q 20. What is a bundle cap?

    Ans. In some plant stems, like the sunflower, bundle caps are formed by additional sclerenchyma fibers that strengthen the vascular bundles.

    Q 21. What is tonoplast?

    Ans. Tonoplast is the membrane that bounds a vacuole and contains various active transport systems that pump ions into the vacuole.

    Q 22. What are fibers or tracheids?

    Ans. Fibers or tracheids are long, cylindrical cells that can exist in solid bundles in xylem or as bundle caps.

    Q 23. What are sclereids?

    Ans. Sclereids are shorter cells found in seed coats and nutshells, providing protection.

    Q 24. What are vessels or trachea?

    Ans. Vessels or trachea are long tubular structures that join end to end to form long water-conducting pipes in xylem.

    Q 25. Define secondary growth?

    Ans. Secondary growth is an increase in plant growth due to the activity of vascular cambium and is most evident in woody, perennial plants like trees, shrubs, and vines.

    Q 26. Which meristems are involved in secondary growth?

    Ans. Secondary growth occurs due to cell division in:

    • Vascular cambium
    • Cork cambium

    Q 27. What is sapwood and heartwood?

    Ans. Sapwood is the active portion of trees responsible for conducting, while heartwood is the inactive, non-conducting wood in older trees.

    Q 28. What is callus or wood tissue?

    Ans. The cambium forms callus or wood tissue over a wound, consisting of soft parenchymatous tissues, which unite branches during budding and grafting.

    Q 29. What is the difference between animal and plant movements?

    Ans. Animals move by changing their location in response to stimuli, while plants show movements by altering their growth patterns since they are fixed in one place.

    Q 30. What are the main types of movements in plants?

    Ans. There are two types of movements in plants:

    1. Autonomic movements
    2. Growth movements

    Q 31. What are autonomic movements, and what are their main types?

    Ans. Autonomic movements are spontaneous movements in plants due to internal causes. They have three main types:

    1. Tactic movements
    2. Turgor movements
    3. Growth movements

    Q 32. Define tactic movements.

    Ans. Tactic movements are movements of entire cells or organisms in response to external stimuli. They can be either positive, moving toward the stimulus, or negative, moving away from the stimulus.

    Q 33. What is phototactic movement?

    Ans. Phototactic movement is a response to the stimulus of light. For example, chloroplasts in plant cells show positive phototactic movements to absorb more light for photosynthesis.

    Q 34. What is chemotactic movement?

    Ans. Chemotactic movements are responses to chemical stimuli. For instance, the movements of sperms in some plants towards archegonia due to the stimulus of nucleic acids released by the ovum are examples of chemotactic movements.

    Q 35. What are turgor movements?

    Ans. Turgor movements occur due to changes in turgor and cell size caused by the gain or loss of water. Examples include the rapid movements of leaflets in the “touch me not” plant and sleep movements in certain plants.

    Q 36. What are growth movements?

    Ans. Growth movements result from unequal growth on different sides of plant organs, such as stems, roots, tendrils, and buds.

    Q 37. Define epinasty?

    Ans. Epinasty is a type of movement seen in leaves and petals. In this movement, the upper surface of a leaf in bud condition shows more growth than the lower surface, leading to the opening of buds.

    Q 38. Define hyponasty?

    Ans. Hyponasty occurs when the lower surface of a leaf in bud condition grows more than the upper surface, causing the bud to remain closed.

    Q 39. Define mutation?

    Ans. Nutation is the zigzag-like movement of the growing tip of a young stem due to alternating growth on opposite sides of the apex.

    Q 40. What are tropic movements?

    Ans. Tropic movements involve changes in curvature of an entire plant part toward or away from stimuli like light, gravity, and touch.

    Q 41. Define phototropism?

    Ans. Phototropism is a movement of plant parts in response to the stimulus of light, resulting from differential growth of that part.

    Q 42. What is thigmotropism?

    Ans. Thigmotropism is the movement of plant parts in response to the stimulus of touch. An example is climbing vines that coil around a support when they come into contact with it.

    Q 43. Define chemotropism?

    Ans. Chemotropism is the movement in response to chemical stimuli. It’s seen in the hyphae of fungi, for instance.

    Q 44. Define hydrotropism?

    Ans. Hydrotropism is the movement of plant parts in response to the stimulus of water. Roots exhibit positive hydrotropism, while shoots show negative hydrotropism.

    Q 45. Define geotropism or gravitropism?

    Ans. Geotropism, or gravitropism, is the response to gravity. Roots display positive geotropism (growing towards gravity), and shoots show negative geotropism (growing away from gravity).

    Q 46. What are nastic movements?

    Ans. Nastic movements are non-directional movements of plant parts in response to external stimuli.

    Q 47. Define photonasty?

    Ans. Photonasty is driven by photoperiod, causing flowers to open and close based on their light sensitivity.

    Q 48. Define thermonasty?

    Ans. Thermonasty is a movement in response to temperature changes. For instance, tulip flowers close at night due to rapid growth on the lower side, leading to upward and inward bending of the petals.

    Q 49. What are haptonastic movements?

    Ans. Haptonastic movements occur in response to contact. The Venus flytrap is an example of an organism that exhibits this type of movement.

    Q 50. What is a skeleton?

    Ans. A skeleton is the tough and rigid framework of an animal’s body, providing protection, shape, and support to its organs.

    Q 51. What are the different types of skeletons?

    Ans. There are three main types of skeletons in animals:

    1. Hydrostatic Skeleton
    2. Exoskeleton
    3. Endoskeleton

    Q 52. Define exoskeleton?

    Ans. An exoskeleton is the hardened outer surface of an animal’s body, allowing internal muscles to attach to it.

    Q 53. What is the composition of the exoskeleton?

    Ans. The exoskeleton consists of two layers: the outermost epicuticle, composed of waxy lipoproteins, and the underlying procuticle, which is made of chitin and various proteins.

    Q 54. What is moulting or ecdysis?

    Ans. Moulting or ecdysis is the process where arthropods periodically shed their exoskeleton to replace it with a larger one as they grow.

    Q 55. What is an endoskeleton?

    Ans. An endoskeleton is a skeleton that lies internally within an animal’s body, providing support, shape, protection, and enabling locomotion.

    Q 56. What is the composition of the endoskeleton?

    Ans. The endoskeleton primarily consists of two types of tissues:

    1. Bones
    2. Cartilage

    Both bones and cartilage are forms of rigid connective tissue, with living cells embedded in a collagen matrix.

    Q 57. What do you know about compact bone?

    Ans. Compact bone is dense and strong, offering attachment sites for muscles.

    Q 58. What are the characteristics of spongy bone?

    Ans. Spongy bone is light, rich in blood vessels, and highly porous. Its cavities contain bone marrow, where blood cells are produced.

    Q 59. Name the cells associated with bone?

    Ans. There are three main types of cells associated with bone:

    Osteoblasts (Bone-forming cells)

    Osteocytes (Mature bone cells)

    Osteoclasts (Bone-dissolving cells)

    Q 60. What is fibrocartilage?

    Ans. Fibrocartilage is a type of cartilage that contains a matrix with bundles of collagen fibers. It is found in external parts of the ear and the epiglottis.

    Q 61. What is the axial skeleton?

    Ans. The axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum. It provides central structural support and protection to vital organs.

    Q 62. Name the bones of the cranium?

    Ans. The bones of the cranium include paired bones such as the parietal and temporal bones, as well as unpaired bones like the frontal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones.

    Q 63. Name the bones of the facial region?

    Ans. In the facial region, there are paired bones like the maxilla, zygomatic, nasal, lacrimal, palatine, and inferior concha. The unpaired bones are the mandible and vomer.

    Q 64. What is the vertebral column?

    Ans. The vertebral column, also known as the backbone, extends from the skull to the pelvis and protects the spinal cord. It consists of 33 vertebrae categorized as cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and pelvic based on their location.

    Q 65. What is the sacrum?

    Ans. The sacrum is formed by the fusion of the anterior five vertebrae in the pelvic region.

    Q 66. What is the coccyx?

    Ans. The coccyx is formed by the fusion of the four posterior vertebrae in the pelvic region.

    Q 67. Why are the lower two pairs of ribs called “floating ribs”?

    Ans. The lower two pairs of ribs are called “floating ribs” because they do not attach directly to the sternum.

    Q 68. What is the appendicular skeleton?

    Ans. The appendicular skeleton consists of the pectoral girdle and appendages (forelimbs) and the pelvic girdle and appendages (hind limbs).

    Q 69. What does the pectoral girdle comprise?

    Ans. The pectoral girdle, which attaches the arms to the trunk, comprises the scapula, supra-scapula, and clavicle. The clavicle connects the scapula with the sternum.

    Q 70. Name the different bones of the forelimb?

    Ans. The forelimb includes the humerus, radius, ulna, 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals, and 14 phalanges.

    Q 71. What are the important features of the pelvic girdle?

    Ans. The pelvic girdle attaches the hind limb to the vertebral column and consists of two coxal bones. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three bones: ilium, ischium, and pubis.

    Q 72. Name the different parts of the hind limb?

    Ans. The hind limb includes one femur, 2 tibia + fibula, 8 tarsals, 5 metatarsals, and 14 phalanges.

    Q 73. What are the different classes of joints based on structure?

    Ans. Joints are classified into three main categories based on their structure:

    Fibrous Joints

    Cartilaginous Joints

    Synovial Joints

    Q 74. What are hinge joints?

    Ans. Hinge joints are joints that allow movement in two directions, such as the elbow and knee.

    Q 75. What are ball & socket joints?

    Ans. Ball & socket joints permit movement in several directions and have at least two pairs of muscles perpendicular to each other. Examples include the hip joint and shoulder joint.

    Q 76. What is cleft palate?

    Ans. Cleft palate is a condition in which the palatine processes of the maxilla and palatine bone fail to fuse properly, resulting in an opening in the roof of the mouth.

    Q 77. What is arthritis?

    Ans. Arthritis encompasses over 100 different types of inflammatory or degenerative diseases that damage the joints, leading to pain, stiffness, and increased friction in the affected joints.

    Q 78. What is osteoporosis?

    Ans. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by brittle and fragile bones due to reduced bone mass. It typically affects aging women with decreased estrogen levels.

    Q 79. What is osteomalacia?

    Ans. Osteomalacia, or “soft bone,” includes disorders in which bones lack adequate mineralization, causing them to become soft and weak. Weight-bearing bones of the legs and pelvis may bend and deform.

    Q 80. What is rickets?

    Ans. Rickets is a disease primarily affecting children and is characterized by bowed legs and a deformed pelvis. It results from dietary calcium deficiency or a lack of vitamin D.

    Q 81. What is disc-slip?

    Ans. Disc-slip, or herniated disc, occurs when one or more spinal discs rupture due to severe physical trauma, leading to the protrusion of the spongy nucleus pulposus.

    Q 82. What is closed reduction?

    Ans. In closed reduction, a physician uses manual manipulation to coax bone ends back to their normal position without surgery.

    Q 83. What is open reduction?

    Ans. In open reduction, surgery is performed to secure bone ends together with pins or wires.

    Q 84. What are muscles?

    Ans. Muscles are specialized cells responsible for movement in multicellular animals. They contain actin and myosin proteins organized into numerous filaments.

    Q 85. Name different types of muscles in vertebrates?

    Ans. Vertebrates have three types of muscles:

    Smooth muscles

    Skeletal muscles

    Cardiac muscles

    Q 101. What is tetany?

    Ans. Tetany is a condition caused by low blood calcium levels, leading to increased neuron excitability, muscle twitches, and convulsions.

    Q 102. What is a cramp?

    Ans. A cramp is a brief or prolonged, painful, and involuntary muscle contraction, often occurring in the thigh and hip muscles.

    Q 103. What are the parts of a skeletal muscle?

    Ans. Skeletal muscles consist of three parts: Origin, Insertion, and Belly.

    Q 104. What are ligaments and tendons?

    Ans. Ligaments connect bone to bone and have some elasticity, while tendons connect muscles to bones and are non-elastic.

    Q 105. What is an antagonistic arrangement?

    Ans. Antagonistic arrangement refers to muscles at a joint working against each other by contracting.

    Q 106. What are brachialis and brachioradialis?

    Ans. Brachialis and brachioradialis are muscles located below the biceps brachii. The brachialis is inserted in the ulna, while the brachioradialis is inserted in the radius and both help bend the arm at the elbow.

    Q 107. How do Euglena, Paramecium, and Amoeba move?

    Ans. Euglena moves using a flagellum, Paramecium moves with cilia, and Amoeba moves by extending pseudopodia.

    Q 108. What is an effective stroke?

    Ans. The effective stroke occurs when five out of nine double fibrils contract or slide simultaneously, causing cilia to bend or shorten.

    Q 109. What is a recovery stroke?

    Ans. The recovery stroke happens when four out of nine double fibrils contract, causing cilia to straighten.

    Q 110. What is the type of locomotion in jellyfish and earthworm?

    Ans. Jellyfish use jet propulsion for movement, while earthworms exhibit accordion-like movement involving setae and muscles.

    Q 111. How does a cockroach locomote?

    Ans. Cockroaches primarily move by swift walking but can also take flight using their wings.

    Q 112. How do snails and mussels move?

    Ans. Snails and mussels move slowly by crawling with the help of their foot.

    Q 113. What are tube feet?

    Ans. Tube feet are locomotion organs in starfish.

    Q 114. What is a swim bladder?

    Ans. A swim bladder is a specialized structure in bony fish that helps maintain buoyancy in water.

    Q 115. How do amphibians wriggle?

    Ans. Amphibians wriggle along the ground on their bellies, using segmentally arranged muscles. When moving deliberately, their legs hardly touch the ground.

    Q 116. What is bipedal locomotion?

    Ans. Bipedal locomotion involves animals walking on their hind limbs, freeing their front appendages for other functions like prey capture or flight.

    Q 117. What is passive flight?

    Ans. Passive flight occurs when birds glide, utilizing their wings as aerofoils to generate lift from the air.

    Q 118. What is active flight?

    Ans. Active flight involves birds flapping their wings to achieve lift and propulsion when there is little support from upward air currents.

    Q 119. What is plantigrade locomotion?

    Ans. In plantigrade locomotion, mammals walk on the soles of their feet, with the palm, wrist, and digits resting on the ground. Examples include monkeys, apes, humans, and bears.

    Q 120. What is unguligrade locomotion?

    Ans. Unguligrade locomotion is when mammals walk on the tips of their toes, which are modified into hooves, as seen in deer and goats.

    Q 121. What causes muscle cramps?

    Ans. Muscle cramps can be caused by factors such as low blood sugar, electrolyte depletion, dehydration, and irritability of the spinal cord and neurons.

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  • 2nd Year Biology Chapter 15 : Homeostasis

    2nd year Chapter 15: Homeostasis Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 2nd year  Biology Chapter 15 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 2nd year Biology Chapter 15 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Biology Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q 1. What is homeostasis?

    Ans. Homeostasis is the process of maintaining a stable internal environment in an organism, protecting it from the negative effects of external environmental fluctuations.

    Q 2. Define osmoregulation.

    Ans. Osmoregulation is the mechanism by which organisms regulate the balance of solutes and the gain and loss of water between their bodies and the external environment.

    Q 3. How are plants distributed based on osmoregulation?

    Ans. Plants are distributed in various habitats, such as aquatic, moderate, and severely dry terrestrial environments. These categories are referred to as hydrophytes, mesophytes, and xerophytes, respectively.

    Q 4. What are osmoregulators?

    Ans. Osmoregulators are animals that actively regulate their body fluid concentration to discharge excess water in hypotonic conditions and excrete salts in hypertonic conditions.

    Q 5. What is ebony?

    Ans. Ebony is a tree that deposits unique chemicals in its branches and trunk, especially in the old xylem, which is no longer used for water transport. It produces very dark, black wood in the center.

    Q 6. What is a protonephridium?

    Ans. A protonephridium is a network of closed tubules without internal openings found in Planaria.

    Q 7. What is the difference between the excretory system of insects and other animals?

    Ans. Insects are the only group of animals that eliminate excretory waste with feces. In all other animals, there is no structural and functional relationship between the nutritive and excretory systems.

    Q 8. What technique is used for the removal of kidney stones?

    Ans. Kidney stones can be removed through kidney surgery or by using lithotripsy, a non-surgical technique to break up kidney stones.

    Q 9. What is hemodialysis?

    Ans. Hemodialysis is a medical procedure in which blood is circulated through an artificial kidney (dialyzer) to remove waste products and excess water from the blood.

    Q 10. What are heterotherms?

    Ans. Heterotherms are animals capable of varying degrees of endothermic heat production but do not regulate their body temperature within a narrow range, such as bats and hummingbirds.

    Q 11. What are pyrogens?

    Ans. Pyrogens are chemicals produced by pathogens like bacteria and viruses and by blood cells in response to infections. They displace the hypothalamic set point, causing a fever.

    Q 12. Name the excretory structures in the animal kingdom associated with the digestive tract.

    Ans. Malpighian tubules.

    Q 13. Define excretion.

    Ans. Excretion is the process of eliminating nitrogenous waste from an organism’s body.

    Q 14. Define thermoregulation.

    Ans. Thermoregulation is the maintenance of an organism’s internal temperature within a tolerable range.

    Q 15. What is a hypotonic environment?

    Ans. A hypotonic environment has more water or a more diluted solution compared to the cell’s concentration.

    Q 16. What is a hypertonic environment?

    Ans. A hypertonic environment has a higher concentration than the cell’s internal solution.

    Q 17. What is an isotonic environment?

    Ans. An isotonic environment closely resembles the internal solution of the cell.

    Q 18. What are hydrophytes?

    Ans. Hydrophytes are plants adapted to survive in aquatic environments. They have extensive surface areas on their leaves, numerous stomata on the upper leaf surface, and are adapted to excessive water loss.

    Q 19. What are mesophytes?

    Ans. Mesophytes are plants adapted to environments with moderate water availability. They can adjust the opening and closing of stomata to control water loss.

    Q 20. What are xerophytes?

    Ans. Xerophytes are plants adapted to environments with limited water availability. They have small, thick leaves, a thick and waxy cuticle, and stomata located on the lower leaf surface in depressions to reduce water loss.

    Q 21. What are osmoconformers?

    Ans. Osmoconformers are animals that maintain their body fluids isotonic to the external environment, even in marine saltwater conditions, without actively adjusting their osmotic state.

    Q 22. Define anhydrobiosis?

    Ans. Anhydrobiosis is the ability of terrestrial animals to tolerate dehydration, and this capacity varies among different species.

    Q 23. What is excretion?

    Ans. Excretion is the process of eliminating nitrogenous waste and other wasteful metabolites from the body.

    Q 24. What are excretophores?

    Ans. Excretophores refer to the seasonal shedding of yellow leaves in plants, which helps them get rid of accumulated waste.

    Q 25. In what form is nitrogen excreted by animals?

    Ans. Excess nitrogen is primarily excreted by animals in the form of ammonia, urea, or uric acid. Smaller amounts of nitrogen are excreted as creatinine, creatine, trimethylamine oxide, amino acids, purine, and pyrimidine.

    Q 26. What are ammonotelic, ureotelic, and uricotelic animals?

    Ans. Ammonotelic animals excrete ammonia, ureotelic animals excrete urea, and uricotelic animals excrete uric acid.

    Q 27. What are flame cells?

    Ans. Flame cells are part of the tubular excretory system found in some animals. These cells have cilia that beat to propel interstitial fluid into the tubular system

    Q 28. What are nephridiopores?

    Ans. Nephridiopores are openings through which the tubular excretory system drains into the external environment.

    Q 29. What are metanephridia?

    Ans. Metanephridia are a type of tubular excretory system found in earthworms. They have an internal ciliated opening called a nephrostome, which collects coelomic fluid.

    Q 30. What are Malpighian tubules?

    Ans. Malpighian tubules are suspended tubular structures found in terrestrial arthropods, particularly insects. They collect excretory products from the hemolymph.

    Q 31. What is a nephron?

    Ans. A nephron is the basic functional unit in the kidneys responsible for filtering and processing blood.

    Q 32. What are metabolic wastes?

    Ans. Metabolic wastes are the byproducts generated at the metabolic level, including urea, creatinine, uric acid, bilirubin, and toxins.

    Q 33. What is bilirubin?

    Ans. Bilirubin is a product of hemoglobin breakdown and the metabolism of various hormones.

    Q 34. What is the urea cycle?

    Ans. The urea cycle is a metabolic pathway involved in the production of urea. It converts two ammonia molecules and one carbon dioxide molecule into one molecule of urea.

    Q 35. What is the ureter?

    Ans. The ureter is a duct that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.

    Q 36. What is the urethra?

    Ans. The urethra is a tube that carries urine from the urinary bladder out of the body during urination.

    Q 37. What are cortical nephrons?

    Ans. Cortical nephrons are nephrons located along the cortex of the kidney.

    Q 38. What are juxtamedullary nephrons?

    Ans. Juxtamedullary nephrons are nephrons found at the border of the cortex and medulla, with their tubular system looping deep into the inner medulla. They play a significant role in the production of concentrated urine.

    Q 39. What is Bowman’s capsule?

    Ans. Bowman’s capsule is a cup-shaped swelling at the inner end of a nephron that surrounds the glomerulus.

    Q 40. What is the glomerulus?

    Ans. The glomerulus is a ball of capillaries found within Bowman’s capsule. It filters blood as it enters through the afferent arteriole and exits through the efferent arteriole.

    Q 41. What are peritubular capillaries?

    Ans. Peritubular capillaries are a network of capillaries arising from the glomerulus and surround the nephron’s tubules.

    Q 42. What are vasa recta?

    Ans. Vasa recta are a loop of blood vessels extending from juxtamedullary nephrons to maintain the osmotic balance of the medulla.

    Q 43. What is glomerular filtrate?

    Ans. Glomerular filtrate is the filtrate produced in the glomerulus, containing various useful substances such as glucose, amino acids, and salts in an aqueous solution.

    Q 44. What is a counter current multiplier?

    Ans. The counter current multiplier mechanism causes a gradual osmotic outflow of water from the filtrate in the descending loop of Henle. The ascending loop of Henle actively transports sodium into the kidney interstitium to maintain its high concentration.

    Q 45. What is the role of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormones in the kidney?

    Ans. Aldosterone promotes the active uptake of sodium in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) actively transports water from the filtrate to the kidney’s interstitium.

    Q 46. What are hypercalcemia and hyperoxaluria?

    Ans. Hypercalcemia is the condition of having high levels of calcium in the bloodstream, while hyperoxaluria is the presence of high blood levels of oxalates. Both conditions contribute to the formation of kidney stones.

    Q 47. What is the percentage of incidence of different types of stones?

    Ans. The incidence of calcium oxalate stones is approximately 70% of all kidney stones. The incidence of other types, such as calcium phosphate and uric acid stones, is around 15% and 10%, respectively. These salts precipitate during urine formation and accumulate to form stones.

    Q 48. What is the most common way of lithotripsy?

    Ans. The most common method of lithotripsy is extra-corporeal shock wave lithotripsy, where high concentrations of X-rays or ultrasound are directed from a machine outside the body to break kidney stones into small pieces that can be passed out in urine.

    Q 49. What is dialysis?

    Ans. Dialysis is a medical procedure used in cases of chronic renal failure to clean the blood by passing it through an artificial kidney or by filtering it within the abdomen. This helps remove waste products and excess water from the blood, performing a function similar to healthy kidneys.

    Q 50. Name different types of dialysis.

    Ans. There are two main types of dialysis:

    • Hemodialysis
    • Peritoneal Dialysis

    Q 51. How is peritoneal dialysis done?

    Ans. Peritoneal dialysis involves filling the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen with dialysis fluid through a catheter. This fluid absorbs excess water and waste products from the body, which are then drained out. The process is repeated several times a day.

    Q 52. What is a dialyzer?

    Ans. A dialyzer is a machine used for hemodialysis, functioning similarly to a natural kidney. It helps remove nitrogenous waste and excess water from the blood and is used when the kidneys have failed. Dialysis is performed until a matching kidney transplant is available.

    Q 53. What is uremia?

    Ans. Uremia, also known as end-stage renal disease, refers to the advanced stage of kidney failure. It requires ongoing dialysis treatment until a suitable kidney donor can be found for transplant.

    Q 54. What are heat-shock proteins?

    Ans. Heat-shock proteins are special proteins synthesized by plant cells to survive heat stress. These proteins include enzymes and other proteins that help protect cellular structures and prevent denaturation under high-temperature conditions.

    Q 55. How do plants respond to cold stress?

    Ans. Plants respond to cold stress by increasing the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids in their cell membranes. This adaptation helps maintain membrane structure at lower temperatures by preventing the formation of ice crystals.

    Q 56. What are poikilotherms (cold-blooded)?

    Ans. Poikilotherms are animals whose body temperature fluctuates in response to changes in the external environment. This group includes invertebrates, amphibians, and reptiles.

    Q 57. What are homeotherms (warm-blooded)?

    Ans. Homeotherms are animals that can maintain a constant body temperature regardless of changes in the external environment. This category includes birds and mammals.

    Q 58. What are endotherms?

    Ans. Endotherms are animals that generate their own body heat through metabolic processes. They can regulate their body temperature independently, such as mammals, birds, some fishes, and flying insects.

    Q 59. What are ectotherms?

    Ans. Ectotherms are animals that produce heat at a low metabolic rate and primarily rely on external heat sources to regulate their body temperature. Most invertebrates, fish, amphibians, and reptiles fall into this category.

    Q 60. What are structural adaptations for temperature regulation in animals?

    Ans. Structural adaptations for temperature regulation may include long-term changes in subdermal fatty layers for insulation, fur or pelage, the presence of sweat glands, and modifications in lung structure to aid in heat regulation.

    Q 61. What is shivering thermogenesis?

    Ans. Shivering thermogenesis refers to the process where the body increases heat production by increasing muscle contraction through movements or shivering.

    Q 62. What is non-shivering thermogenesis?

    Ans. Non-shivering thermogenesis involves the production of heat triggered by hormones, such as thyroid hormones, which do not rely on muscle contractions like shivering.

    Q 63. What is brown fat?

    Ans. Brown fat is a type of adipose tissue found in some mammals, including humans, specialized for rapid heat production. It is located between the shoulder blades in humans and is involved in warming blood.

    Q 64. What is evaporative cooling?

    Ans. Evaporative cooling is the process of cooling the body by allowing sweat or water to evaporate from exposed body surfaces, which helps dissipate excess heat.

    Q 65. What is vasodilation and vasoconstriction?

    Ans. Vasodilation is the widening of blood vessels, often occurring in hot conditions, to help regulate body temperature by increasing blood flow near the skin’s surface, promoting heat loss. Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels, typically in cold conditions, to reduce blood flow to the skin’s surface and conserve heat.

    Q 66. How do land mammals respond to cold weather?

    Ans. Land mammals respond to cold weather by raising their fur, which creates a thicker layer of still air that acts as insulation between their skin and the surroundings.

    Q 67. What is blubber?

    Ans. Blubber is a thick layer of insulating fat found just under the skin of marine mammals, such as whales and seals, which helps them regulate their body temperature, especially in cold water.

    Q 68. How do marine mammals regulate their temperature in warm seasons?

    Ans. Marine mammals release excess heat into warm seas by increasing blood flow in the outer layer of their skin. This helps dissipate heat from the skin surface.

    Q 69. What regulatory mechanisms do terrestrial mammals use to cope with warm temperatures?

    Ans. Terrestrial mammals use several mechanisms to regulate their body temperature in warm conditions. These include sweat gland activation for evaporative cooling, panting (especially in dogs), and the use of saliva and urine for evaporative cooling in animals like bats.

    Q 70. How do thermoreceptors play a role in high-temperature regulation?

    Ans. When temperatures rise above the set point, warm-temperature thermoreceptors located in the skin, hypothalamus, and other parts of the nervous system send signals to increase blood flow to the skin, activate sweat glands, and promote the evaporation of sweat for cooling.

    Q 71. What is the role of cold receptors in response to cold temperatures?

    Ans. Cold receptors send signals to the hypothalamus when temperatures drop, inhibiting heat loss mechanisms and activating heat conservation mechanisms. This includes constricting superficial blood vessels and stimulating shivering and non-shivering mechanisms.

    Q 72. Why does filtration occur only in the glomerular part of the nephron and nowhere else?

    Ans. Filtration occurs in the glomerular part of the nephron due to two main reasons: the porous nature of the glomerular walls, allowing substances to pass through, and the development of high blood pressure at the glomerulus, known as filtration pressure.

    Q 73. Name two metabolic altered states that commonly lead to kidney stone formation?

    Ans. Two common metabolic altered states that lead to kidney stone formation are hyperoxaluria, caused by high blood oxalate levels due to increased intake or production of oxalate, and hyperoxaluria, characterized by higher blood oxalate levels from increased oxalate production.

    Q 74. What is renal failure?

    Ans. Renal failure refers to the failure of the kidneys to effectively filter urea from the blood. Common causes include the destruction of glomeruli due to various factors.

    Q 75. Provide one key adaptation in plants to high and low temperatures?

    Ans. To cope with high temperatures, plants have evolved evaporative cooling mechanisms. To deal with low temperatures, they adjust the solute concentration within their cells to prevent ice crystal formation, supercooling the cytosol.

    Q 76. How do the ascending and descending loops of Henle differ in their physiology while contributing to sustaining a high concentration in the kidney interstitium?

    Ans. The descending loop of Henle allows a gradual outflow of water from the filtrate back into the kidney, while the ascending loop of Henle prevents water outflow and actively transports sodium ions into the kidney interstitium. Together, they help maintain a high concentration in the interstitium.

    Q 78. How do bony fishes regulate osmoregulation?

    Ans. Bony fishes regulate osmoregulation by:

    • Taking in a large amount of seawater
    • Excreting concentrated urine with maximum salt excretion and minimal water loss
    • Actively removing salts from the body through gills and rectal glands

    Q 79. Describe the position and function of sphincter muscles in the excretory system?

    Ans. Sphincter muscles are located near the junction of the urethra and the urinary bladder.

    Function: Sphincter muscles control the release of urine from the bladder.

    Q 81. The skin excretes water, salts, and sebum, yet it is not considered an excretory organ. Why?

    Ans. While the skin does excrete water, salts, and sebum, it primarily does so for thermoregulation and protection against microorganisms, not for excretion of waste products. Therefore, it is not classified as an excretory organ.

    Q 82. List some substances synthesized by the liver?

    Ans. The liver synthesizes various substances, including nitrogenous wastes like ammonia (NH3), urea, uric acid, albumin, bile, lipids, cholesterol, and lipoproteins.

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    For the 2nd year Biology Chapter 15 Introduction to Programming, this set of notes follows the new syllabus, as it is for all Punjab boards. Other boards offer notes that different from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the boards in Punjab.

    the purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.

  • 2nd year Computer Chapter 13: Functions In C

    2nd year Chapter 13: Functions In C Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 2nd year  Computer Chapter 13 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 2nd year Computer Chapter 13 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Computer Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q 1. What is modular programming?

    Ans. Modular programming is a technique where a program is divided into independent parts or modules, each designed to perform specific tasks. Multiple programmers can develop different modules, accelerating program development. These modules are later combined to create a complete program.

    Q 2. What is a function?

    Ans. In structured programming, a program consists of multiple parts, with each part referred to as a module or function. Functions have unique names and are created to perform specific tasks. A function can be defined as “A named piece of code developed to perform a specific task.”

    Q 3. Why are functions used?

    Ans. Functions are used for various advantages, including:

    • Simplifying programming
    • Facilitating modifications
    • Aiding in debugging
    • Supporting code reuse
    • Eliminating duplicate code
    • Reducing programming time

    Q 4. What are built-in functions?

    Ans. Built-in functions, also known as library functions, are functions provided by the C language itself. These functions are stored in different header files. To use a built-in function in a program, the relevant header file is included in the program’s preprocessor directive.

    Q 5. What are user-defined functions?

    Ans. User-defined functions are functions written by the programmer to perform specific tasks tailored to the program’s requirements.

    Q 6. What are function prototypes?

    Ans. Function prototypes, also known as function declarations, provide essential information to the compiler about a function’s structure. They are necessary for the proper declaration of a function in a C language program and can be placed before the main() function or inside it.

    Q 7. What is function definition?

    Ans. A function performs a specific task by executing a set of instructions. Writing the set of statements for a function is referred to as function definition, which is typically done outside the main() function.

    Q 8. What is a function header?

    Ans. The first line of a function definition is called the function header and follows this syntax: “Return-Type Name(parameters).”

    Q 9. What is function calling?

    Ans. Function calling is the process of using a function in a program. It involves writing a statement that calls the function by its name, with any required parameters included in braces at the end of the statement. A semicolon is used to end the statement in which the function is called.

    Q 10. What is a return statement?

    Ans. The “return” keyword is used to send a value from the body of a called function back to the calling function. The statement where the “return” keyword is used is called a return statement, following this syntax: “return expression.”

    Q 11. What are parameters?

    Ans. Parameters, also known as arguments, are values provided to a function when it is called. These values are placed after the function name within parentheses. Parameters can be variables or constants, and multiple parameters are separated by commas.

    Q 12. What is a local variable?

    Ans. Local variables are variables declared inside the main() function, within any user-defined function, or in the header of a function definition. They are also referred to as automatic variables and are limited to the scope of the function where they are declared. The general syntax to declare a local variable is: “auto data-type variable-name;”

    Q 13. What is a global variable?

    Ans. Global variables are variables declared outside the main() function or any other function. They are also known as external variables and can be accessed by all functions in the program. Changes to the value of a global variable in one function are reflected in all other functions.

    Q 14. What is the lifetime of a variable?

    Ans. The lifetime of a local variable is restricted to the duration of the function where it is declared. These variables are created in memory when control enters the function and are destroyed when control exits, making their data inaccessible.

    Q 15. What is the scope of a variable?

    Ans. Local variables have limited scope and can only be used within the function where they are declared. Attempting to access a local variable outside of its scope generates a compiler error.

    Q 16. What is the scope of a global variable?

    Ans. Global variables have a broad scope and can be accessed in all modules of the program. They are accessible in the main() function as well as in all other user-defined functions.

    Q 17. What is the lifetime of a global variable?

    Ans. Global variables are created in memory when the program begins execution and persist until the program is terminated. Therefore, the lifetime of a global variable extends from the program’s start to its termination.

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    For the 2nd year Computer Chapter 13 Introduction to Programming, this set of notes follows the new syllabus, as it is for all Punjab boards. Other boards offer notes that different from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the boards in Punjab.

    the purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.

  • 2nd year Computer Chapter 12: Loop Constructs

    2nd year Chapter 12: Loop Constructs Short and Simple Question & Answer

    We are aware that you are searching for 2nd year  Computer Chapter 12 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 2nd year Computer Chapter 12 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Computer Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

    Q 1. What is a Control Structure?

    Ans. A control structure is a statement used to manage the flow of execution in a program or function, combining individual instructions into a single logical unit. It ensures that program logic is implemented with precision. There are three primary types of control structures:

    • Sequence structure
    • Selection structure
    • Repetition structure

    Q 2. What is a Sequence Structure?

    Ans. In a sequence structure, program instructions execute one after another, following the order in which they are written. This represents the default flow of a program, where execution starts from the first instruction and proceeds sequentially.

    Q 3. What is a Selection Structure?

    Ans. A selection structure divides program instructions into two or more groups, executing a selected group based on the evaluation of a specific condition.

    Q 4. What is a Repetition Structure?

    Ans. A repetition structure, also known as an iteration or loop structure, is used to repeatedly execute a statement or set of statements as long as a given condition remains true. This control structure is ideal for performing repetitive tasks and includes three fundamental loop structures in C language:

    • While loop
    • Do-while loop
    • For loop

    Q 5. What is an IF Statement?

    Ans. “if” is a keyword in C language, and the “if” statement serves as the simplest form of a selection structure. It is used to execute or skip a statement or a set of statements after evaluating a specific condition, typically a logical or relational expression. If the condition is true, the statements following the “if” statement are executed; if false, they are skipped.

    Q 6. What is a Compound Statement?

    Ans. A compound statement, also referred to as a block of code, consists of a set of statements enclosed within curly brackets.

    Q 7. What is an if-else Statement?

    Ans. The “if” statement is employed to make decisions regarding whether a particular task will be performed or not. When a two-way decision is required, the if-else statement is used. It evaluates a condition and executes one of two code blocks, while skipping the other. Both code blocks cannot be executed or skipped.

    Q 8. What is an if-else-if Statement?

    Ans. The if-else-if statement is used to select and execute one compound statement from two or more available statements. When multiple compound statements are present and you need to choose one, the if-else-if statement is employed.

    Q 9. What is a Conditional Operator?

    Ans. The conditional operator is used as an extension of a simple if-else statement to make a two-way decision. It evaluates a condition, and depending on the result, it selects and executes one of two specified statements.

    Q 10. What is a Switch Statement?

    Ans. A switch statement serves as an alternative to the if-else-if statement and is used for conditional decision-making. It is particularly useful when you need to execute a block of statements from multiple options. The switch statement evaluates an expression and selects the appropriate case based on the evaluated value.

    Q 11. What is a Nested if Statement?

    Ans. A nested if statement occurs when one “if” statement is used within another “if” statement. This structure is used to create more complex decision-making scenarios by nesting one if statement inside another.

    Q 12. What is a Break Statement?

    Ans. The “break” statement is a keyword used within a switch statement. It is the final statement within each case and is employed to exit the current code block. When the break statement is executed in a switch statement, it transfers the flow of control to the first instruction after the switch block.

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    For the 2nd year Computer Chapter 12 Introduction to Programming, this set of notes follows the new syllabus, as it is for all Punjab boards. Other boards offer notes that different from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the boards in Punjab.

    the purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.