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10th Class Chemistry Chapter 14: Environment Chemistry The Atmosphere

10th Class Chapter 14: Environment Chemistry The Atmosphere Short and Simple Question & Answer

We are aware that you are searching for 10th Class Chemistry Chapter 14 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 10th Class Chemistry Chapter 14 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Chemistry Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

Q1. Write composition of dry air.

Ans: The Composition of dry air, as: Nitrogen 78.09% Oxygen 20.94% Argon 0.93% Carbon dioxide 0.03%

Q2. What is the difference between primary and secondary pollution.

Ans: Primary pollutants: Primary pollutants are the waste or exhaust products driven out because of combustion of fossil fuels and organic matter. These are: oxides of Sulphur (SO₂ and SO3) oxides of carbon (CO and CO₂) oxides of nitrogen (especially nitric oxide NO) hydrocarbon (CH) Ammonia and compounds of fluorine. Secondary pollutants: Secondary pollutants are produced by various reactions of primary pollutants. These are: Sulphuric acid, Nitric acid, Hydrofluoric acid, Ozone Peroxy-acetyl nitrate (PAN)

Q3. What are the sources of CO, and CO?

Ans: The main sources of CO, and CO as: Both of these gases are emitted du No volcanic eruption and decomposition of organic 45 matter naturally. The major source for the emission of these gases is combustion of fossil fuel (coal, petroleum and natural gas). Fossil fuels burnt in combustion engine of any type of automobile, kiln of any industry, or open air fires emit CO and CO. Forest fires and burning of wood also emit CO: and CO. Especially, when supply of oxygen is limited, emission of CO dominates.

Q4. Why converters should be used in automobile exhausts?

Ans: Converters should be used in automobile exhaust so that they convert CO to CO, and oxides of nitrogen NO to N: before it enters in air

Q5. Write importance of CO; to life on earth.

Ans: CO, is the “life gas for plants. CO, absorbs infrared radiations emitted by the Earth. Although CO, is negligible as compared to N, and O, yet its heat retaining capacity is tremendous. Without CO₂ life on earth would have been impossible 97 Write occurrence of Sulphur compounds in the atmosphere. Ans: Naturally occurring sulphur-containing compounds are emitted in the bacterial decay of organic matter, in volcanic gases and forest fires. But the concentration of sulphur-containing compounds in the atmosphere because of natural sources is very small as compared to the concentration of those compounds emitted by fossil fuel combustion in automobiles and industrial units. About 80% of the total S*O_{2} is released by the combustion of coal and petroleum products.

Q6. How S*O_{2} and S*O_{3} are formed? How these gases cause air pollution?

Ans: Fossil fuels contain Sulphur Fossil fuels are burned to produce energy The sulphur in the fuel forms oxides of sulphur. S*O_{2} and S*O_{S} \rightarrow Oxides of sulphur escape into the air. They are air pollutants Oxides of sulphur dissolve in water and form Acid Rain. That falls on the earth.

Q7. What are the effects of SO, gas? Also writes its properties/characteristics.

Ans: It cause suffocation, irritation S*O_{2} forms sulphuric acid which damages building and vegetations. S*Q_{2} is a colorless gas having irritating smell.

Q 8. How to control pollution because of sulphur?

Ans: To control pollution because of S*O_{2} It is necessary to remove sulphur from fossil fuels before they are burnt

Q9. How nitric oxide is produced in air?

Ans: Naturally occurring oxides of nitrogen, mainly nitric oxide (NO), is produced by the electrical lightening in air

Q10. How nitric oxide is produced by the combustion of fossil fuels?

Ans: Combustion of fossil fuels in internal combustion engine in thermal power stations and factories where huge amount of coal is is burnt, burnt, NO is formed by the direct combination of nitrogen and oxygen Q13. How nitric oxide reacts with oxygen? Ans: Nitric oxide quickly reacts with air to form nitrogen dioxide. NO is highly toxic gas.

Q11. How NO and N*O_{2} are formed? How these gases causes air pollution.

Ans: Nitrogen in the air is normally un-reactive At high temperature it reacts with oxygen to form oxides of nitrogen. NO & NO: These gases escape into the air. They are pollutants → Oxides of nitrogen dissolve in water and form Acid Rain, That falls on the carth

Q12. How the mixture of NO and N*O_{1} gases are represented? Write their effects.

Ans : Mixture of these gases represented as NO, enter in chimneys of thermal power factories. It the air through automobile exhaust and irritates breathing passage This oxide form nitric acid combining with water vapours in air, Nanc acid is a component of acid rain which

Q 13. What is meant by Ozone? Where do ozone layers exist in the atmosphere?

Ans: Ozone is an allotropic form of oxygen. O₂ represents it, Ozone is present throughout the atmosphere. But its maximum concentration called the ozone layer lies in the stratosphere region about 25 to 30 km away from the Earth’s surface.

Q 14. How ozone layer protects our earth?

Ans: Ozone layer surrounds the globe and protects Earth like a shield from harmful ultraviolet radiation of sunlight, otherwise ultraviolet radiations would cause skin cancer. Thus, ozone layer is stratosphere is beneficial for life on Earth.

Q 15. How the concentration of ozone in stratosphere remains nearly constant?

Ans: Under normal condition ozone concentration in stratosphere remains nearly constant through series of complex atmospheric reactions. Two reactions that maintain a balance in ozon

Q 16. What is meant by incineration?

Ans: Incineration is a waste treatment process that involves the burning of solid waste at high temperature between 650°C to 1100°C in incinerators

Q 17. What is the function of incinerator?

Ans: Incinerators reduce the solid mass of the original waste by 80-85% and convert the waste materials into ash, flue gas and heat. Although, the volume of solid waste is reduced effectively by incineration, it produces highly poisonous gases and toxic ash.

Q 18. Write composition of flue gas.

Ans: The flue gas includes dioxins, furans, sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, hydrochloric acid and a large amount of particulate matter.

Q 19. What is meant by filtration?

Ans: Filtration is separation of insoluble solid particles (sand, clay, dust or precipitates) from a liquid. It is carried out by filtering a mixture

Q 20. What is the difference between pollutant and contaminants?

Ans: The pollutants are those substances which cause pollution, While contaminants are those substance that make something impure.

Q 21. What is meant by air pollution? Write its effects.

Ans: The harmful substances present in air are called air pollutants. Even a beneficial substance beyond a specific concentration may be harmful. Air pollutants change the weather, badly affects human health, damage the plants and destroy buildings the

Q22. What do you mean by atmosphere?

Ans: Our planet Earth has four natural systems, lithosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere, and biosphere So, atmosphere is the natural system of our our planet Earth It can be defined as Atmosphere is the envelope of different gases around the Earth It extends continuously from the Earth’s surface outwards without any boundary

Q 23. Name the major constituents of atmosphere is maintained?

Ans: The major constituents of troposphere are as follows: (a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen These two gases comprises 99% by volume of the Earth’s atmosphere

Q 24. How the temperature of atmosphere is maintained?

Ans: C*O_{2} and water vapours are pre present in atmosphere. Yet these are in low concentration but play an important role in maintaining temperature of atmosphere, Because both these gases allow visible light to pass through but absorb infrared radiations emitted by the Earth surface. So, temperature of atmosphere is maintained.

Q 25. Where the ozone layer exists?

Ans: Ozone layer exist in mid stratosphere.

Q26. Why the temperature of upper stratosphere is higher?

Ans: Because ozone in the upper layer absorbs high, energy ultraviolet radiations from the sun, it raises the temperature of stratosphere. That is the reason temperature of upper stratosphere is higher

Q27. What do you mean by an air pollutant?

Ans: The harmful substances present in air are called air pollutants. For example, Carbon monoxide CO

Q28. Name three primary air pollutants.

Ans:(1) Hydrocarbon (CH) (ii) Ammonia (NH) (iii) Oxides of nitrogen (N*O_{2}) Q34. Identify as primary or secondary air pollutant S*O_{2} C H + HNO3, N*H_{3} S*O_{L} Ans: Primary Pollutant: NH: CH. S*O_{2} Secondary Pollutant: HNO, H_{2}*S*O_{2} Ozone

Q29. Why the CO is dangerous for earth.

Ans: CO is an air pollutant. It is a health hazard being a highly poisonous gas. Being colorless and odorless its presence cannot be noticed easily and readily. When inhaled, it binds with the hemoglobin more strongly than that of oxygen. Thus, hindering the supply of oxygen in the body Exposure to higher concentrations of CO causes headaches and fatigue. If whaled for a longer time it results in breathing difficulties and ultimately death. It is the reason burning is not allowed in closed places, it is advised to switch off coal or gas heaters, cooking ranges, etc., before going to sleep.

Q 30. How sulphur containing compounds are emitted naturally?

Ans: Naturally occurring sulphur containing compounds are emitted in the bacterial decay of organic matter, in volcanic gases any forest fires.

Q 31. How combustion of fossil fuels in internal combustion engine produces oxides of nitrogen.

Ans: Combustion of fossil fuels in internal combustion engines, in thermal power stations and factories where huge amount of coal is burnt, NO is formed by the direct combination of nitrogen and oxygen.

Q32. How acid rain is produced?

Ans: Acid rain means presence of excessive acids in rain water. This rain is produced when normal rain water dissolved oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in air. Rain water converts SO, into H₂SO, and NO to HNO2 and HNO3. These acids reduces the pH of rain water upto 4. Thus, acid rain formed on dissolving acidic air pollutant such as SO, and NO: in rain water

Q 33. Why acid rain damages buildings?

Ans: Acid rain attacks the calcium carbonate present in the marble and limestone of buildings and monuments. Thus, these buildings are getting dull and eroded day by day.

Q34. How aquatic life is affected by acid rain?

Ans: Acid rain on soil and rocks leaches heavy metals (Al, He, Pb, Cr, etc.) with, it and discharges these metals into rivers and lakes. This water is used by human beings for drinking purpose. These metals accumulate in human body to a toxic level. On the other hand, aquatic life present in lakes also suffers because of high concentration metals Especially high concentration ration of aluminum metal clogs the fish gills. It causes suffocation and ultimately death of fish sam go

Q 35. Why plants are dying day by day? Discuss

Ans: Acid rain directly damages the leaves of trees and plants, thus limiting their growth. Depending upon the severity of the damage, plants growth can be hampered Plants ability to bear cold or diseases reduce to get it die.

Q36. Justify, ozone is beneficial for human beings.

Ans: Ozone is present throughout the atmosphere. But is maximum concentration called ozone layer lies in stratosphere region about 25 to 30 km away from the Earth’s surface. This layer surrounds the globe and protects Farth like a shield from harmful ultraviolet radiations of sunlight. Otherwise ultraviolet radiations would cause skin cancer. Thus, ozone layer in stratosphere is beneficial for life on the carth

Q 37. What do you mean by ozone hole?

Ans: The region in which ozone layer depletes is called ozone hole. A single chlorine free radical released by the decomposition of CFCs is capable of destroying upto many lacs of ozone molecules.

Q 38. Where the ozone layer is found?

Ans: Ozone layer lies in stratosphere region and formed by the associates of an oxygen atom with an oxygen molecule in the mid of stratosphere.

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For the 10th Class Chemistry Chapter-14 Introduction to Programming, this set of notes follows the new syllabus, as it is for all Punjab boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the boards in Punjab.

he purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.

November 10, 2024
10th Class Chemistry Chapter 16: Chemical Industries

10th Class Chapter 16: Chemical Industries Short and Simple Question & Answer

We are aware that you are searching for 10th Class Chemistry Chapter 16 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 10th Class Chemistry Chapter 16 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Chemistry Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

Q1. Define concentration process, is it used in metallurgy of copper?

Ans: The process of removal of gangue from the ore ore is technically known as concentration and the purified ore is called the concentrate. Yes, concentration process used in metallurgy of copper.

Q2. Why a small amount of coke is required in the smelting process?

Ans: Because smelting is carried out in blast furnace. The process in blast furnace is highly exothermic process. Therefore, a small amount of coke is required in this process.

Q3. Why lime is added in the smelting process?

Ans: Lime is added to remove excess of SiO₂, Lime reacts with sand to form slag.

Q5. What is the difference between slag and matte?

Ans: Slag: When flux combine with gangue it will form slag which being lighted in weight and floats on the molten metal Matte: In blast furnace cuprous sulphide and ferrous sulphide form a mixture (CuS Fes).This molten mixture is called matte

Q6. Mention the chemical reaction for the formation of metallic copper in the bessemerization process.

Ans: Chemical reactions for the formation of metallic copper in the bessemerization process, as follow

Q7. Why anode is eaten up in electro refining process?

Ans: T Because on passing the electric current through the Copper sulphate solution, anode (Impure copper) dissolves to provide Cu ions to the solution, these Cu jons are discharged by gaming of electrons from the cathode thereby copper atorte deposit on the cathode, making it thick block of pure copper metal. The impurities like gold and salvet settle down as anosle raid

Q8. What do you mean by anode mud?

Ans: During the electro refining process of copper which carried out in an electolynek, The impurities like gold and silver settle down as annde mud

Q9. Why only NaHCO, precipitates when C*O_{2} is passed through the Ammonical brine?

Ans: When C*O_{2} is passed through the Ammonical brine, a mixture of NH4Cl and NaHCO, is obtained. The temperature of the mixture is lowered to 15°C and precipitates of NaHCO, are formed. Because NaHCO, is insoluble in NH4Cl at low temperature.

Q10. Which raw materials are required for the formation of sodium carbonate?

Ans: The raw materials needed for the formation of sodium carbonates are:

Q11. How C*O_{2} is prepared in the Solvay’s process?

Ans: C*O_{2} is prepared by heating lime stone in a lime kiln.

Q 12. Give the advantages of Solvay’s process.

Ans: The advantages of Solvay’s process are as: i.It is a cheap process as raw materials are available at very low prices. ii. Carbon-dioxide and ammonia are recovered and reused. iii.Process is pollution free, because the only waste is calcium chloride solution iv. Sodium carbonate of very high purity is obtained. v. Consumption of fuel is very less since no solution is to be evaporated.

Q13. What happens when ammonium carbonate is heated with steam?

Ans: When arnmonium carbamate is evaporated with the help of steam, it dehydrates, to form urea

Q14. How many stages are involved in the formation of urea?

Ans: There are three stages are involved in the formation of urea. These are: i. Reaction of ammonia and carbon-dioxide ii. Urca formation iii. Granulation of urea

Q15. What role is played by pine oil in the froth flotation process?

Ans: Pine oil is played an important role in froth flotation process because Pine oil coated ore particles being lighter come to the surface in the form of froth that can be skimmed easily

Q16. Name the various metallurgical operation.

Ans: The process involved in metallurgy fin extraction of a metal in the pure stale from its are as ore i. Concentration of the ones ii. Extraction the metal iii. Refining of metal

Q17. How roasting is carried out?

Ans: Roasting process is carried out in a special farmace which is called Reverberatory furnace.

Q 19. How NaHCO, is converted into N*a_{2}*C*O_{3} * 1

Ans: Sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated to get sodium carbonate

Q 20. How ammonia is recovered in Solvay’s process?

Ans: Ammonia is recovered in this tower from ammonium chloride solution produced in the carbonated tower and calcium hydroxide formed in lime kiln.

Q21. How ammonia is prepared for synthesis is Urea?

Ans: Ammonia is prepared by the Haber’s process. One volume of nitrogen (from air) and three volumes of hydrogen (obtained by passing methane and steam over hented nickel catalyst) is passed over iron catalyst at 450°C and 200 atm pressure

Q22. Describe the formation of petroleum?

Ans: Petroleum was formed by the decomposition of dead plants and animal buried under earth’s crust millions of years ago.

Q23. What is refining of petroleum and how it is carried out?

Ans: Refining process is the separation of crude oil mixture into various useful products (fractions), It is carried out by a process called fractional distillation.

Q24. Give uses of kerosene oil.

Ans: It is used as domestic fuel, a special grade of it is used as jet fuel

Q 26. Write down the names of four fractions obtained by the fractional distillation, of residual oil.

Ans: The four fractions of residual oil are: i. lubricants ii. wax iii. Paraffin iv. Asphalt

Q 27. What is the difference between crude oil and residual oil?

Ans: Crude oil: It is dark brownish viscous liquid which is formed of dead plants and animals Residual oil: After the fractional distillation of petroleum, the oil is left behind called residual oil.

Q 28. Which petroleum fraction is used in dry cleaning?

Ans: Gasoline or petrol is used in dry cleaning.

Q 29. Define Metallurgy.

Ans: Metallurgy is the science of extracting metals from ores.

Q 30. Define Minerals.

Ans: The solid natural materials found beneath the earth surface, which contains compound of ractals in the combined state along with earthly impurities are called minerals.

Q31. Define ores.

Ans: The minerals from which the metals are extracted commercially at a compamtively low cost with minimum effort are called ores of the metals. For example, ores of copper are copper glance (CueS) and chalcopyrite (CuFeS2)

Q32. Why the colour of hairs different from different people?

Ans: The colour of hairs caused by the presence of transition metal compound in the hair, Brown hair contains iron or copper compounds blonde hair contains compounds of titanium and redhead hair is because of the presence of molybdenum compounds

Q 33. Define Gangue,

Ans: Impurities associated with the ore known as gangue

Q34. Write down the names of steps used in metallurgy.

Ans: The process involved in metallurgy for extraction of a metal in the pure state them its ore are as i Concentration of the ore ii. Extraction of the metals iii.Refining of the metal

Q35. What is concentration of the ore?

Ans: The process of removed of yangue from the one is technically known as concentration and the purified ore is called concentrate

Q36. What is gravity separation?

Ans: Gravity separation is based on the difference in ses of the metallic ore and pangue particles

Q 37. Define Forth flotation process.

Ans: Froth flotation process is based on the welting characteristics of the ore and the gangue particles with oil and water respectively.

Q38. Define electromagnetic separation.

Ans: Electromagnetic separation is based on the separation of magnetic ores from the non-magnetic impurities by means of electromagnetic or magnetic separators.

Q 39. Define Roasting.

Ans: It is the process of heating the concentrated ore to a high temperature in excess of au

Q 40. What is blister copper?

Ans: The dissolved gases escape out forming blisters on the surface of the solid copper. Therefore, the solid copper it is called blister cupper. It is about 98% pure copper.

Q 41. Describe the principle of Solvay’s process.

Ans: Principle of Solvay’s process lies in the low solubility of sodium bicarbonate at low temperature 1.c. at 15°C. When CO, Ts passed through only NaHCO, precipitates

Q 42. What do you know about Urea?

Ans: Urea is nitrogenous fertilizers. It consists of 46.61% nitrogen li is white crystalline compound highly soluble in water, it is used for the manufacturing of important chemical, but its major (about 90%) use is as a fertilizer,

Q43. Define petroleum.

Ans: Petroleum means rock oil, It is a complex mixture of several gaseous, liquid and solid hydrocarbons having water, salts and carth particles with it. It is lighter than water and is assoluble in it.

Q 44. Define refining.

Ans: Refining process is the separation of crude usted into various aseful products (fractious), it is carried out by a process called fractional destillation

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For the 10th Class Chemistry Chapter 16 Introduction to Programming, this set of notes follows the new syllabus, as it is for all Punjab boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the boards in Punjab.

he purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.

November 10, 2024
10th Class Chemistry Chapter 15: Water

10th Class Chapter 15: Water Short and Simple Question & Answer

We are aware that you are searching for 10th Class Chemistry Chapter 15 Notes on the internet. The notes are well-written, simple, and organized in an easy-to-understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you will find a download button to make your life easier. These notes for 10th Class Chemistry Chapter 15 User Interaction are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 Chemistry Notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

Q1. Why water is considered to be universal solvent?

Ans: Water is the universal solvent because it can dissolve almost all the minerals. Its ability to dissolve substances is because of two unique properties of water, which are: i. Polarity of water molecule. ii. Exceptional hydrogen bonding ability.

Q2. Write occurrence of water?

Ans: The oceans contain about 97% Of World water. The rest of the water is in the form of glaciers, ice caps, ground water and inland water (river, lakes, and steams), It is also present in atmosphere in the form of water vapours,

Q3. Why sea water is unfit for drinking purpose?

Ans: Sea water is unfit for drinking and agricultural purposes due to high percentage of dissolved salts. Only 20 2% of the total water on the Earth is potable, ac fit for drinking purposes

Q4. What happen if you add lump of cesium to water?

Ans: If you add a lump of cesium to water in a glass trough, the reaction is so vigorous that the trough will shatter into small pieces

Q5. How fluorine is beneficial for life?

Ans: In some parts of the world, the water supply commans small amounts of flaorine compounds. found that, in these areas, people did not suffer much from tooth decay. This It was is because compounds of fluorine proteet teeth from decay. This is why many tooth pastes contain fluorine compounds.

Q6. How hard water hampers the cleanings action of soap?

Ans: Soap is the sodium salt of fa long chain carbresylic acid (fatty acid) magnesium and calcurn Those ions react with the soap molecule of calcium and magnesium n salts salts of of faty acids called scum Hard water to form an comains salts of insoluble precipitate As a result, a lunge amount of soap is wasted in scum formatan Thes, shes the efficienty of sep

Q7. What is meant by water pollution?

Ans: Water pollution is a contamination of water bodies (e.g. lakes, rivers, oceans and ground water). Water pollution occurs when pollutants are discharged directly or indirectly into water bodies without adequate treatment to remove harmful compounds.

Q8. What is the difference between soft and hard water?

Ans: Soft water: Soft water is that produces good lather with soap. Hard water: Hard water is that which does not produce lather with soap.

Q9. What are the types of hardness in water?

Ans: There are two types of hardness of water iTemporary hardness is because of presence of bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium. ii. Permanent hardness is because of presence of sulphates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium

Q10. How temporary hardness is removed by boiling method?

Ans: Temporary hardness of water is easily removed by boiling water, on boiling calcium bicarbonate Ca(HCO) decomposes to produce insoluble calcium carbonate, which precipitates out of the solution.

Q11. How temporary hardness is removed by Clark’s method?

Ans: A chemical method to remove temporary hardness is by the addition of slaked lume Ca(OH).

Q12. A calculated amount of lime water is added to temporary hard water.

Ans: It is liver inflammation commonly caused by one of five virases called Hepatitis A, B, C, D and E. Hepatitis A and E can be transmitted by contaminated water.

Q13. What is the importance of water in our daily life?

Ans: Its importance is because of two reasons: it is an cresential and major component of each and every living coll. For example, Firstly, it is human body consists of about 701 water . Secondly, it provides an environment for animals, and plans that live in water. So, all living organens owe thor life because of water

Q14. Write characteristics of pure water?

Ans: Good quality water is colorless, colorless, odorless and tasteless, Hardness of water can be checked by washing Soft water produces lather with steer Pand water has least conductivuy

Q15. What are the industrial effluents of water pollution?

Ans: As Industrial effluents are one of the main causes of water pollution. It includes high toxic organic chemicals, inorganic salts, heavy metals, mineral acids, oil and greases, etc.

Q16. What is meant by water borne diseases? How they are controlled?

Ans: Waterborne diseases are those diseases that spread because of drinking polluted water. These diseases spread because of lack of proper sanitation managements. These diseases can be prevented by using safe water, properly disposing sewage and controlled use of toxic chemicals.

Q17. What is the effect of detergents on scarcity of oxygen?

Ans: Household water in the sewage from toilets, baths, kitchens, etc. consists of detergents used for cleaning purposes. Detergent being non-biodegradable causes rapid growth of aquatic plants. When these plants die and decay, they consume O present in the water. Thus, aquatic life is badly affected because of scarcity of O.

Q18. Write a short note on agricultural effluents?

Ans: Agricultural effluents consist of fertilizers and pesticides. These substances provide nitrate and phosphate ions for rapid growth of aquatic plants. When these plants die and decay, their decomposition process consumes O of water. Thus, depletion of O causes damage to the aquatic life

Q19. What is meant by fluorosis?

Ans: Fluorosis is a disease caused by the consumption of excess fluoride. Fluorosis can cause bones and teeth damage.

Q20. Give composition of water molecule.

Ans: Water is composed of two elements: Oxygen and Hydrogen. One atom of oxygen combines with two atoms of hydrogen to form one molecule of water.

Q21. Write the role of hookworm in causing waterborne disease.

Ans: Hookworm is a parasitic worm that infects the small intestine. Sevene cases can nemit in anemia and stunted growth in children. Hooloworm larvae enter the body through the skin, often via the feet. Spread annum I by poor sanitary condition, hookwortes infiect about one billion people worldwide per

Q22. How Jaundice is caused?

Ans: Jaundice is caused by an excess of bile pigments in the blood. Liver ceases to function and eyes turn yellow. Patient feels weakness and fatigue

Q23. Flow typhoid is caused of?

Ans: A dangerous bacterial discase often spread by costumenared water or by food prepared with contaminated water

Q24. What is meant by water softening?

Ans: The removal of Me” and Casons which are responsible for the hardness is called water softening

Q25. What is Capillary action?

Ans: Capillary action is the process by which water rises up from the roots of plants to leaves. This process is vital for survival of land plants.

Q26. Point out two properties of water that makes it an excellent solvent.

Ans: The ability of water to dissolve substances is because of two unique properties which are: Polarity of water molecule. ii. Exceptional hydrogen bonding ability.

Q27. Why the water molecule is polar?

Ans: Polar nature of Water: Water molecule has a polar structure i.e.; one end of the molecule is partially positive while the other end is partially negative because of electronegativity difference between oxygen and hydrogen atoms.

Q28. Explain why non-polar gases are soluble in water?

Ans: Water can even dissolve non-polar (un-ionizable) gases like oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen ete. through dipole-induced dipole forces.

Q29. Which salts are responsible for hardness of water?

Ans: Rain water dissolves many salts sal of divalent cations like M * g ^ – 2 C * a ^ 2 and anions like CT, S * O_{4} ^ 2 HCO, and C * O_{3} ^ 12 For example, gypsum (CaS*O_{4} * 0.2H_{2}*O) lime stone (C_{3}*C*O_{3}) These salts make the water hard.

Q30. What is the principle of removing permanent harness of water?

Ans: The permanent hardness can only be removed by using chemicals calcium (C * a ^ 12) and magnesium (M * g ^ 12) are removed as “Insoluble salts” by adding washing soda (N*a_{2}*C*O_{1}) or sodium zeolite.

Q31. How addition of N*a_{2}*C*O_{3} removes permanent hardness of water?

Ans: The addition of washing soda removes the calcium and magnesium ions as the insoluble calcium and magnesium carbonate respectively

Q32. How sodium zeolite softens water?

Ans: Sodium zeolite is a naturally occurring resin of sodium aluminum silicate NaAl(SiO₂): Which can also be prepared artificially. When water is passed through resin sodium ions of the resin are exchanged with the unwanted calcium and magnesium ions of the hard water

Q33. What do you mean by boiler scales? How are they removed?

Ans: Hard water is unfit for use in steam engines, boilers and turbines because insqluble calcium and magnesium salts are deposited inside. This hard-deposited layer of calcium and magnesium salts is called as boiler scale, they can be nemoved by washing the boilers with washing soda, slaked linse and sodium zeoline.

Q34. What is an industrial waste?

Ans: All the industrial units discharge their wastes (chemical and solid materials) either to open ground or to water channels this is called industrial waste or industrial effluent.

Q35. How water used as a cleaning agent in industries cause pollution?

Ans: Water used as cleaning agent in industries is directly discharged out. This water contains all kinds of toxic chemicals and detergents. When these effluents or used water enter lakes, streams, rivers or occans, they either get dissolved or float suspended in water. Even they get deposited on the bed. This results in pollution of water,

Q36. Way use of detergents is increasing day by day?

Ans: The use of detergents is increasing in houses and industries because detergents have strong cleaning action that of soap even in hard water. They can even work in acidic solution.

Q37. How decaying plants consume oxygen?

Ans: Decaying plants consume oxygen for the biodegradable.

Q38. What is function of fertilizers?

Ans: Fertilizers are used to make up the deficiency of nitrogen, phosphorous ete, of the soil because of intensive cultivation of crops in the recent years,

Q39. How pesticides cause water pollution?

Ans: Run-off from the agricultural land (where fertilizer and pesticides have been used) emers into ponds, streams or This water contains nitrate NO. and phosphate PO, salts. These rivers. substancus results ina rapid sunlight and air to reach the aquatic life When algae die and decompose, bacteria consume oxygen of the water for decomposition As a result, oxygen depletes in water. Aquatic animals feel suffocation and ultimately die duc to insufficient supply of oxygen. In this way, pesticides play their role in water pollution,

Q40. Define water borne diseases.

Ans: Diseases that Spread because of drinking pellused water or cating food prepared with pollated water are called water borne diseases.

Q41. What is dysentery”

Ans: Dysentery is an intestinal disazase which is typically caused by certain bacteria or parasites, is characterized by severe dearhea that mury be accompanied by blood de mucoust

Q42. Which of the bacteria causes the cholera

Ans: Bactona vibrio cholera causes cholera

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For the 10th Class Chemistry Chapter-15 Introduction to Programming, this set of notes follows the new syllabus, as it is for all Punjab boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the boards in Punjab.

he purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible no matter how hard we try. In any case, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions for improving the study material. Our efforts are meant to benefit all of the community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends, as “Sharing is caring“.

November 10, 2024
10th Class biology Chapter 18: Pharmacology

10th Class Chapter 18: Pharmacology Short and Simple Question & Answer

We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 18 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 18 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

Q.1 Define pharmacology and distinguish it from pharmacy?
Ans. Pharmacology
It is the study of drug composition, properties and medical applications. Sources of drugs are also studied in pharmacology.
Pharmacy
While pharmacy is the study of preparation of medicines and drugs. Pharmacology is not synonymous with pharmacy.

Q.2 Differentiate between medicinal drug and addictive drug.
Ans. Medicinal drug
It is defined as any chemical substance used in the diagnosis, cure, treatment or prevention of diseases.
Addictive drug
Some drugs often make person dependent on them or addicted. The person’s body becomes familiar to it and user cannot function well without it, these are called addictive drugs.

Q.3 Differentiate between analgesic and antibiotic?
Ans. Analgesic (pain killers) reduces pains e.g. paracetamol etc.
Antibiotic
Antibiotic are chemicals which inhibits or kills bacteria and treat bacterial infection e.g.
tetracycline etc.

Q.4 What is marijuana? To which category of addictive drugs it belongs?
Ans. Marijuana is a hallucinogen which is smoked. It is obtained from flowers, stems, leaves of the
marijuana plant. It belongs to the category of hallucinogens which result in a feeling of well being
that lasts two to three hours.

Q.5 Differentiate between narcotics and hallucinogens?
Ans. Narcotics
Narcotics are strong painkillers. These drugs are often prescribed in conjunction with other less potent painkillers. These are used to relieve pain, but some people may abuse narcotics for ecstatic effects.
Hallucinogens
Hallucinogens are the drugs that cause changes in perception, thought, emotion and consciousness.

Q.6. What is Aspirin?
Ans. A pain killer medicine, synthesized in Laboratory having the composition as Acetaminophen.

Q.7 What do you know about bactericidal and bacteriostatic?
Ans. The antibiotics that they kill bacteria e.g. cephalosporins are called bactericidal.
Bacteriostatic
The antibiotics that they work by stopping bacterial growth e.g. sulphonamides.

Q.8 What is cardiotonic?
Ans. Medicines for giving strength to heart muscles is called cardiotonics.

Q.9 Define the term cephalosporin?
Ans. A group of antibiotics, interfere with synthesis of bacterial cell wall and so are bactericidal. It is used to treat pneumonia, sorethroat, tonsillitis, bronchitis etc.

Q.10 What is heroin?
Ans. A commonly abused narcotic, derived from morphine, affects the central nervous system and causes drowsiness, hypertension etc.

Q.11 What is Morphine?
Ans. A commonly used narcotic, derived from the juice of opium, acts directly on the CNS to relieve pain, has a high potential for addiction.

Q.12 What are sedatives?
Ans. The types of drugs that interact with the central nervous system to depress its activities, make a person calm or drowsy e.g. diazepam.

Q.13 What do you know about sulfonamide and tetracycline?
Ans. Sulfonamide
Sulpha drugs are synthetic anti-biotics that contain sulfonamide group. They are broad spectrum bacteriostatic antibiotics. They inhibit the folic acid synthesis in bacteria and used to treat pneumonia and urinary tract infections.
Tetracycline
Broad spectrum bacteriostatic inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. It is used in the treatment of infections of respiratory tract, urinary tract, intestine etc.

Q.14 What is vaccine?
Ans. The material used to produce immunity to a disease by stimulating the production of antibodies.

Q.15 Define the term disinfactants?
Ans. Disinfactants destroy microorganism found on non-living objects.

Q.16 What is tincture of iodine?
Ans. The mineral iodine is used in making tincture of iodine, a liquid that helps to prevent infection when applied to cuts and bruises.

Q.17 Make a difference between broad spectrum and narrow spectrum antibiotics?
Ans. Broad Spectrum Antibiotics
Some antibiotics can be used to treat a wide range of infections and are known as broad spectrum
antibiotics.
Narrow Spectrum Antibiotics
Antibiotics used against a few types of bacteria are called narrow spectrum antibiotics.

Q.18 What is role of antibodies?
Ans. When pathogens enter the body (blood) of host, these proteins stimulate an immune response
in host i.e. synthesis of “antibodies”. Antibodies bind to pathogens and destroy them. In addition, “memory cells” are produced, which remain in blood and provide protection against future infections with the same pathogens.

Q.19 Define antibiotics.
Ans. An antibiotics is a drug that kills or retards the growth (reproduction) of bacteria. They are the chemicals produced by or derived from microorganisms (bacteria and fungi).

Q.20 Name two drugs obtained from animals.
Ans. Fish liver oils, musk, bee’s wax, certain hormones and antitoxins are obtained from animal sources.

Q.21. What are the functions of antibiotics?
OR Define drug. Name one synthetic drug.
Ans. Antibiotics are used to treat many different bacterial infections. Some antibiotics are bactericidal meaning that they kill bacteria. Others are ‘bacteriostatic meaning that they work by stopping bacterial growth.

Q.22. What is meant by drug?” Give one example.
Ans. Any substance that, when absorbed into the body of a living organism, alters normal body function is known as a drug e.g. Aspirin, is an example of synthetic drug.

Q.23. Write the name of two drugs which are obtained from minerals.
Ans. (i) Tincture of Iodine
(ii) Silver Nitrate

Q.24. Which antibiotic is obtained from soil?
Ans. Terramycine is obtained from the soil which is used to treat many infections.

Q.25. Differentiate between antiseptic and antibiotics.
Ans. Antiseptic reduces the possibility of infection on skin while antibiotics inhibit or kill bacteria within or on the body.

Q.26. Write the contributions of Sir Alexander Fleming in the field of pharmacology.
Ans. Sir Alexander Fleming discovered the antibiotic penicillin from the füngus Penicillium notatum for which he was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1945.

Q.27. Write the important contributions of Joseph Lister in the field of surgery.
Ans. Joseph Lister was an English surgeon. He promoted the idea of sterile surgery for the first time. He introduced carbolic acid to sterilize surgical instruments and to clean wounds.

Q:28 Is vaccines provide life time immunity?
Ans. Some vaccines do not provide life time immunity. For example Tetanus vaccines are only effective for a limited period of time. In such cases, booster shots are necessary to maintain.
continuous protection.

Q.29 Write two functions of B.Lymphocytes.
Ans. B.Lymphocytes recognize the weakened or dead pathogens as enemies and start producing antibodies against them. These antibodies remain in blood and provide protection against pathogens. If real pathogens enter blood, the already present antibodies kill them.

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MCQs

1.Antibiotics are used for the;
(a) Treatment of viral infections
(b) Treatment of bacterial infections
(c) Immunization against infections
(d) Both a and b

2.The substances used for the treatment, cure, prevention or diagnosis of disease are called;
(a) Medicinal drugs
(b) Narcotics
(c) Hallucinogens
(d) Sedatives

3.Aspirin is categorized as:
(a) A drug from animals
(b) A synthetic drug
(c) A drug from plants
(d) A drug from minerals

4.The drugs used to reduce pain are known as;
(a) Analgesics
(b) Antiseptics
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Sedatives

5.Which of the following drugs is obtained from plants?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Opium
(c) Cephalosporin
(d) Insulin

6.Which of these addictive drugs are also used as painkillers?
(a) Narcotics
(b) Sedatives
(c) Hallucinogens
(d) All can be used

7.Sulfonamides affect bacteria in the following way:
(a) Break the cell wall
(b) Inhibit protein synthesis
(c) Stop the synthesis of new cell wall
(d) Stop the synthesis of folic acid

8.What is true about vaccines?
(a) Protect against the future viral and bacterial infections
(b) Treat the existing bacterial infections only
(c) Treat existing infections and also protect against future infections
(d) Protect against viral infections only

9.Until 1890, the subject pharmacology was known as:
(a) Clinical pharmacology
(b) Materia Medica
(c) Pharmacy
(d) All of these

10.A cardiotonic digitalis is obtained from a plant:
(a) Poppy
(b) Fungi
(c) Cannabis
(d) Foxglove

11.The role of antiseptics is:
(a) Destroy microorganisms
(b) Kill bacteria
(c) Inhibit bacteria
(d) Reduce possibility of infections

12.Who introduced the idea of sterile surgery for first time?
(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Joseph Lister
(c) Pasteur
(d) Aristotle

13.When Sir Alexander Fleming was awarded Nobel prize on the discovery of penicillin?
(a) 1881
(b) 1955
(c) 1945
(d) 1912

14.Expired drugs can cause damage to:
(a) Heart
(b) Brain
(c) Kidneys
(d) Stomach

15.The most prescribed medications in modern medicine are:
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Sedatives
(c) Cardiotonics
(d) Hallucinogens

16.A medicine for lowering blood pressure, which has sulfonamide group is:
(a) Aspirin
(b) Penicillin
(c) Thiazide diuretics
(d) Teramycine

17.Edward Jenner introduced the world’s first:
(a) Vaccination
(b) Antigen
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Addictive drugs

18.In case of tetanus vaccination which is for limited time, are used for continuous protection.
(a) B-Lymphocytes
(b) Booster shots
(c) Antibiotics
(d) None of these

19.The methods of administering vaccines is/are;
(a) Injection
(b) Mouth
(c) Nasal spray
(d) All of these

20.When the antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, then it is called;
(a) Efficiency
(b) Efficacy
(c) Inefficiency
(d) resistance

21.The medicine reduces the pain;
(a) Aspirin
(b) Quinine
(c) Chloroquine
(d) Resochin

22.This drug belongs to Hallucinogens;
(a) Morphine
(b) Codeine
(c) Heroin
(d) Mescaline

23.Cardiotonic is used to stimulate the heart, it is made from the leaves of purple flowered plant called:
(a) Rose
(b) Jasmine
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Foxglove

24.The powder form of is applied on wounds to stop bleeding and prevent infection:
(a) Ammonium nitrate
(b) Silver nitrate
(c) Sodium phosphate
(d) Sulphur

25.Diazepam is included in:
(a) Analgesics
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Sedatives
(d) Vaccines

26.Long term use of suicidal thoughts: drug induced
(a) Analgesics
(b) Vaccines
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Sedatives

27.Mescaline comes from:
(a) Mushroom
(b) Poppy plant
(c) Cactus
(d) Sunflower

28.The scientific name of marijuana plant is:
(a) Rosa Indica
(b) Brassica campestris
(c) Putrenzeva
(d) Cannabis sativa

29.is not used in children under the age of 8 and during the period of tooth development:
(a) Cephalosporins
(b) Tetracyclines
(c) Sulpha Drugs
(d)Thiazide Diuretics

30.In which year a British physician Edward Jenner infected a young boy with cowpox by injecting pus cells:
(a) 1786
(b) 1696
(c) 1756
(d) 1796

31.Drugs obtained from animals are usually their products.
(a) Catabolic
(b) Anabolic
(c) Waste
(d) Glandular

32.recognize the weakened or dead pathogens as enemies and start producing antibodies against them.
(a) Antigens
(b) Lymphocytes
(c) Vaccines
(d) None

33.destroy microorganisms found on non-living objects.
(a) Sedatives
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Disinfectants
(d) Antiseptics

34.Pathogens contain special proteins called:
(a) Lymphocytes
(b) Antigens
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Antibodies

35.Which of following is/are broad spectrum antibiotics?
(a) Tetracyclines
(b) Sulfonamides
(c) Cephalosporins
(d) Tetracyclines and Sulfonamides

36.Which of following drug is derived from a mushroom?
(a) Marijuana
(b) Mescaline
(c) Morphine
(d) Psilocin

37.Antibiotics are derived from microorganisms:
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria and Fungi
(d) Viruses

38.Bacteriostatics are antibiotics:
(a) Kill bacteria
(b) Stop bacterial growth
(c) Enhance bacterial growth
(d) Lessen bacterial growth

39.Which of following is not an antibiotic?
(a) Penicillin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Thiazide diuretics
(d) Sulfa drugs

40.Penicillin is derived from fungus
(a) Penicillium candidum
(b) Penicillium expansum
(c) Penicillium notatum
(d) Penicillium chrysogenum

41.Example of non-prescription drug is:
(a) Aspirin
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Barbiturates
(d) Tranquillizers

42.Which of following is/are an example of prescription drug:
(a) Barbiturates and Aspirin
(b) Tranquillizers
(c) Aspirin
(d) Barbiturates and Tranquillizers

43.Which of following is an example of synthetic drug?
(a) Digitalis
(b) Penicillin
(c) Aspirin
(d) Streptomycin

44.Which of following affects production of sperms in men?
(a) Codeine
(b) Morphine
(c) Marijuana
(d) Mescaline

45.Paracetamol is a/an:
(a) Analgesics
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Sedatives
(d) Vaccines

46.Small doses of result in feeling of well-being that lasts two to three hours.
(a) Mescaline
(b) Marijuana
(c) Heroin
(d) Morphine

47.Which of following are used to relieve pain for patients with chronic diseases such as cancer.
(a) Sedatives
(b) Narcotics
(c) Hallucinogens
(d) Mescaline

48.Antibiotics used to treat a few types of bacteria are called antibiotics.
(a) Broad Spectrum
(b) Narrow Spectrum
(c) Large Range spectrum
(d) Narrow and Broad Spectrum

49.Sir Alexander Fleming is biologist.
(a) Italian
(b) English
(c) Scottish
(d) Swedish

50.Early Pharmacologist focused on:
(a) Synthetic chemical extract
(b) Microbial Extracts
(c) Plant Extracts
(d) Animal Extracts

51.Which cells in body provide protection against future infections?
(a) Red Blood cells
(b) Thrombocytes
(c) Memory cells
(d) Platelets

52.Drugs which make a person dependent on them are:
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Addictive
(c) Clinical
(d) Non prescription

53.Aspirin is a a/an;
(a) Prescription
(b) Non prescription
(c) Synthetic drug
(d) Synthetic & Non-Prescription drug

54.Medicines which are used to stimulate heart rate are called:
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Cardiotonics
(c) Analgesics
(d) Pain killer

55.A Cardiotonic is:
(a) Penicillin
(b) Aspirin
(c) Digitalis
(d) Opium

56.Penicillin is obtained from:
(a) Plants
(c) Animals
(b) Fungus
(d) Bacteria

57.From the leaves of foxglove, which is obtained?
(a) Opium
(b) Tincture of iodine
(c) Antitoxin
(d) Digitalis

58.The example of a pain reliever is;
(a) Silver nitrate
(b) Morphine
(c) Marijuana
(d) Mescaline

59.An example of illegal addictive drug is:
(a) Marijuana
(b) Penicillin
(c) Digitalis
(d) Foxglove

60.Drugs which animals are: are obtained from
(a) Musk and Bees wax
(b) Musk
(c) Bees wax
(d) Mush and tincture of Iodine

61.Hallucinogen which is smoked is;
(a) Datura
(b) Marijuana
(c) Psilocin
(d) Mescaline

62.Which inhibit or kill bacteria?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Diazepam
(d) Paracetamol

63.Who discovered penicillin?
(a) Fleming
(b) Lister
(c) Jenner
(d) Louis Pasteur

64.Which are aroused for ecstatic effects?
(a) Sedatives
(b) Hallucinogens
(c) Narcotics
(d) Marijuana

65.Most commonly abused Narcotic is:
(a) Morphine
(b) Codeine
(c) Caffeine
(d) Heroin

66.Which is derived from Cactus?
(a) Psilocin
(b) Diazepam
(c) Mescaline
(d) Morphine

67.What affects sympathetic Nervous system?
(a) Sedative
(b) Hallucinogens
(c) Narcotics
(d) Analgesics

68.High doses of increases heart rate?
(a) Marijuana
(b) Hashish
(c) Marijuana & Hashish
(d) Morphine

69.Which interfere with synthesis of bacterial cell wall?
(a) Cephalosporins
(b) Tetracyclines
(c) Tetracyclines & Cephalosporins
(d) Sulfonamide

70.Which should not be used during period of tooth development?
(a) Cephalosporins
(b) Sulfonamides
(c) Tetracyclines
(d) Hallucinogens

71.A medicine for lowering blood pressure is:
(a) Cephalosporins
(b) Sulpha drugs
(c) Tetracyclines
(d) Thiazide diuretics

72.Who introduced Carbolic Acid?
(a) Sir Alexander Fleming
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Joseph Lister
(d) Edward Jenner

73.The example of Sedative is:
(a) Aspirin
(b) Diazepam
(c) Carbolic acid
(d) Tetracycline

74.The drugs that causes changes in perception, thought, emotion and consciousness are:
(a) Narcotics
(b) Sedatives
(c) Hallucinogens
(d) Morphine

75.Morphine and Codeine are derived from:
(a) Poppy
(b) Foxglove
(c) Sheesham
(d) All of these

76.Which one is prescribed as a strange Analgesic under the diamorphine in many Western countries:
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Aspirin
(c) Heroin
(d) Marijuana

77.To which granp aspirin belong;
(a) Obtained from animals
(b) Obtained from plants
(c) Synthetic
(d) Obtained from bacteria

78.Which of the following addictive drugs is obtained from opium?
(a) Morphine
(b) Marijuana
(c) Mescaline
(d) Psilocin

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Class 10 Biology Chapter-18 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

He purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible, no matter how hard we try. Either way, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions to improve the learning material. Our efforts are meant to benefit the entire community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends because “Sharing is Caring.”

November 8, 2024
10th Class biology Chapter 17: Biotechnology

10th Class Chapter 17: Biotechnology Short and Simple Question & Answer

We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 17 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 17 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

Q.1 How would you define fermentation with reference to biotechnology?
Ans: Fermentation is the process in which there is incomplete oxidation reduction of glucose.

Q.2 Name any two industrial products made by fermentation? Also describe their uses in the industry.
Ans: Two industrial products are:
(i) Formic acid
It is used in textile dyeing, leather treatment, electroplating, rubber manufacture.
(ii) Ethanol
It is used as solvent and used in the production of vinegar and beverages.

Q.3 What are the products of the two types of carbohydrate fermentation?
Ans: In alcoholic fermentation, CO2 and ethanol are the products. In lactic acid fermentation, lactic acid is the product.

Q.4 Give an example how biotechnology is helping for better environment?
Ans: Bacterial enzymes are used to treat sewage water to purify.

Q.5 In biotechnology, what is meant by genetically modified organism (GMO)? How is it made?
Ans: In biotechnology, recombinant DNA is transferred to the target host. In this way, host organism is transformed into a genetically modified organism (GMO).

Q.6 What is Batch fermentation?
Ans: In this process, the tank of fermenter is filled with the raw materials to be fermented. The temperature and pH for microbial fermentation is properly adjusted and nutritive supplements are added. All the material is steam sterilized. The pure culture of microorganisms is added to fermenter from a separate vessel.

Q.7 Define Biotechnology. (Board 2014)
Ans: It is defined as the use of living organisms in processes for the manufacture of useful products or for services.

Q.8 What is continuous fermentation?
Ans: In this process, the substrate is added to fermenter continuously at a fixed rate. This maintains the micro-organisms in growth phase. Fermentation products are taken continually.

Q.9 Define Fermentation.
Ans: It is a process in which incomplete oxidation reduction of glucose takes place.

Q.10 What is Fermenter?
Ans: Fermenter is a device that provides optimum environment to microorganisms to grow into a biomass, so that they can interact with a substrate forming the product. Fermentation is carried out in fermenters.

Q.11 What is Genetically modified organism GMO?
Ans: GMO is genetically modified organism. Recombinat DNA is transferred to the target host. In this way the host organism is transformed into genetically modified organism (GMO).

Q.12 What is Recombinant DNA?
Ans: The vector DNA and the attached gene of interest are collectively called recombinant DNA.

Q.13 What is Restriction endonucleases?
Ans: Special enzymes, called restriction endonucleases are used to cut the identified gene from the total DNA of donor organism.

Q.14 What is Single cell protein?
Ans: Single cell protein (SCP) refers to the protein content extracted from pure or mixed culture of algae, yeasts, fungi or bacteria.

Q.15 What is Transgenic organism?
Ans: Organism with modified genetic set up is known as transgenic organism.

Q.16 Define vector?
Ans: A vector is a carrier or transmitter which is selected for transfer of the isolated gene of interest to the host cell. The vector may be a plasmid or a bacteriophage.

Q.17 What is Genetic donor?
Ans: The organism from which the gene of interest is taken during the process of genetic engineering is called genetic donor.

Q.18 Define Plasmid.
Ans: The extra chromosomal DNA present in many bacteria is called plasmid.

Q.19 What is Alcoholic fermentation?
Ans: This fermentation is carried out by many types of yeast such as saccharomyces cerevisiae. In this process, carbondioxide is removed from pyruvic acid. The product acetaldehyde is then reduced to ethanol. The CO2 production causes the rise of the bread. It is used to produce bread, beer, wine and distilled spirits.

Q.20 What is Lactic acid fermentation?
Ans: In this process, pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid. It is carried out by many bacteria. e.g. Streptococcus and many Lactobacillus species. It is quite important in dairy industry where it is used for souring milk and also for production of various types of cheese.

Q.21 What is Beta-Endorphin?
Ans: It is a pain killer produced by the brain, has also been produced by genetic engineering techniques.

Q.22 What is thymosin?
Ans: It is a hormone which is effective against brain and lung cancer.

Q.23 What is ligase?
Ans: Ligase is an enzyme which is used to join the DNA.

Q.24 Write any two objectives of genetic engineering?
Ans. Production of particular RNA and Protein molecules.
ii. Treatment of genetic defects in higher organisms.

Q.25 Define genetic engineering
Ans: Genetic engineering or recombinant DNA technology involves the artificial synthesis, modification, removal, addition and repair of the genetic material DNA.

Q.26 Define Dolly
Ans: In Scotland in 1997, an embryologist Ian Wilmut produced a sheep named Dolly from the body cell of an aduît sheep.

Q.27 What are interferons?
Ans: Interferons are anti-viral protein produced by cells infected with viruses.

Q.28 What is urokinase?
Ans: Urokinase is an enzyme which is used to dissolve blood clots, has been produced by genetically modified microorganisms.

Q.29 What is Human Genome Project?
Ans: Human Genome Project was launched to map all the genome in human cell. The complete map of human genome was published in 2002.

Q.30 What is meant by single cell protein? How are these produced?
Ans: Definition:
Single-cell protein (SCP) refers to the protein content extracted from pure or mixed cultures of algae, yeasts, fungi or bacteria.
Production of single Cell Protein
For the production of single cell proteins, the microorganisms utilize a variety of substrates like agricultural wastes, industrial wastes, natural gas like methane etc.

Q.31 What is meant by Recombinant DNA Technology? Give its one benefit.
Ans: A technology in which a vector is selected for the transfer of the isolated gene of interest to the host cell. The vector may be a plasmid or a bacteriophage. The gene of interest is attached with the vector DNA by using endonuclease and ligase. The vector DNA and the attached gene of interest are collectively called recombinant DNA. This recombinant DNA is transferred to target host and host organism is transformed into a genetically modified organisms (GMO).

Q.32 Name two basic types of Fermentation.
Ans: 1. Alcoholic fermentation (by yeast)
2. Lactic acid fermentation (by bacteria)

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MCQs

1.Find the correct match for the fermentation product and the organism involved;
(a) Formic acid – Saccharomyces
(b) Ethanol-Saccharomyces
(c) Ethanol-Aspergillus
(d) Glycerol – Aspergillus

2.Which is not an objective of genetic engineering?
(a) Production of cheese and yogurt by lactic acid bacteria
(b) Isolation of a particular gene, or part of a gene
(c) Production of RNA and protein molecules.
(d) Correction of genetic defects in higher organisms

3.Which of these is an anti-viral protein?
(a) Urokinase
(b) Thymosin
(c) Insulin
(d) Interferon

4.The first step in genetic engineering is:
(a) Growth of the genetically modified organism
(b) Transfer of the recombinant DNA into the host organism
(c) Isolation of the gene of interest
(d) Insertion of gene into a vector

5.The work on genetic engineering started in:
(a) 1944
(b) 1955
(c) 1945
(d) 1943

6.Scientists are able to cut and paste the DNA of organism in:
(a) 1944
(b) 1970
(c) 1990
(d) 2002

7.Scientists prepared human insulin by inserting the insulin gene in bacteria in:
(a) 1970
(b) 1978
(c) 1990
(d) 2002

8.Human genome: project was launched in:
(a) 1990
(b) 1970
(c) 1978
(d) 2002

9.In alcoholic fermentation, which bacteria is used?
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Lactobacillus
(c) Streptococcus
(d) Both B and C

10.Which of these micro-organism is used in the production of formic acid?
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Bacillus
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) None

11.Glycerol is produced by:
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Bacillus
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Streptococcus

12.Which one is used to dissolve blood clots?
(a) Urokinase
(b) Interferons
(c) Thymosin
(d) Vaccine

13.The complete map of human genome was published in:
(a) 2002
(b) 1944
(c) 1978
(d) 1990

14.50 kilogram of yeast produces how many tons of proteins within 24 hours.
(a) 250
(b) 150
(c) 350
(d) 450

15.Interferon was produced by genetically modified microorganisms in;
(a) 1980
(b) 1944
(c) 1990
(d) 1970

16.500,000 sheep brains were required to produce how much milligrams of human growth hormone?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20

17.Which one is effective against brain and lung cancer?
(a) Beta-endorphin
(b) Vaccine
(c) Thymosin.
(d) Insulin

18.Which one is not used for the production of plastics?
(a) Bacillus
(b) Aspergillus
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) none of these

19.Alcoholic fermentation is carried out by; (Board 2013)
(a) Yeast
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) Algae

20.Enzyme used to cut the identified gene from the total DNA of donor organism is; (Board 2013)
(a) Endonuclease
(b) Ligase
(c) Restriction Endonuclease
(d) Amylase

21.Vector transmits;
(a) Bacterium
(b) Parasite
(c) Pathogen
(d) Both B and C

22.Which is an important application of Biotechnology?
(a) Respiration
(b) Decomposition
(c) Digestion
(d) Fermentation

23.In glycolysis, glucose molecule is broken down into two molecules of:
(a) Pyruvic acid
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Formic acid
(d) Acrylic acid

24.Who produced the Dolly sheep?
(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Walther Flemming
(c) Ian Wilmut
(d) Mendel

25.Who invented Pasteurization?
(a) Louis pasteur
(b) Walther Flemming
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Aristotle

26.Who introduced the term “single cell Protein”?
(a) Mendel
(b) Loius Pasteur
(c) Scrimshow
(d) Ian Wilmut

27.The use of living organisms in processes for the manufactures of useful products for services is called:
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) Biotechnology
(c) Vaccination
(d) Maltation

28.Streptococcus and Lactobacillus are:
(a) Viruses
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Algae

29.When Pasteur convinced the scientific community that all fermentations are the results of microbial activity?
(a) 1957
(b) 1857
(c) 1900
(d) 2010

30.Which one is the commonest type of fermented cereal product?
(a) Pickles
(b) Bread
(c) Jams
(d) Powdered milk

31.In the synthesis of bear, fermentation of fine powder of cereal grains is done by?
(a) Yeast
(b) Bacteria
(c) Viruses
(d) All of the above

32.Which one is used in the production of Vinegar and Beverages?
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Bacillus
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Lactobacillus

33.The vector DNA and the attached gene of interest are collectively called:
(a) GMO
(b) Recombinant DNA
(c) DNA
(d) Endonucleases

34.Wheat dough is fermented by:
(a) Yeast
(b) S.cerevisiae
(c) Lactobacillus
(d) Streptococcus

35.Organisms with modified genetic set up are called:
(a) Dolly
(b) Transgenic organisms
(c) Breed
(d) Vector

36.The process in which glucose molecule is broken into two molecules of pyruvic acid is called:
(a) Fermentation
(b) Genetic Engineering
(c) Glycolysis
(d) Biotechnology

37.Which one is used as a Sweetener?
(a) Formic acid
(b) Ethanol
(c) Glycerol
(d) All of these

38.DNA carries genetic information, it was proved in?
(a) 1970’s
(b) 1944
(c) 1978
(d) 2000

39.When was DNA prepared outside the cells?
(a) 1944
(b) 1953
(c) 1970’s
(d) 1990

40.Scientists were able to cut and paste the DNA of organisms in;
(a) 1953
(b) 1970’s
(c) 1944
(d) 1990

41.Human Genome project was
(a) 1970
(b) 1990
(c) 1991
(d) 2000

42.Complete human genome map was published in?
(a) 1976
(b) 2004
(c) 2002
(d) 2012

43.Malted food is/are;
(a) Powdered milk
(b) Mixture of barely
(c) Whole milk
(d) All of these

44.Fermented food is/are;
(a) Pickles
(b) Yogurt
(c) Both A and B
(d) Wheat flour

45.Which is used for souring milk and for production of various types of cheese?
(a) Lactobacillus
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Both lactobacillus and streptococcus
(d) Saccharomyces

46.Fermentation makes the food more?
(a) More Digestible
(b) Less Nutritious
(c) Tasteless
(d) Less digestible

47.Grapes can directly be fermented by yeasts to:
(a) Formic acid
(b) Wine
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) Ethanol

48.Which product electroplating? is used in
(a) Formic acid
(b) Ethanol
(c) Glycerol
(d) Acrylic acid

49.Which maintains the microorganisms in growth phase?
(a) Fermenter
(b) Continuous fermenter
(c) Batch fermenter
(d) All of these

50.A joining enzyme is;
(a) Thymosin
(b) Endonuclease
(c) Ligase
(d) Urokinase

51.A breaking enzyme is;
(a) Recombinant DNA
(b) Ligase
(c) Urokinase
(d) Endonuclease

52.SCP has good prospects for future because it contains all important;
(a) Nutrients
(b) Amino acids
(c) Lipids
(d) Fats

53.It is a catabolic process:
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Fermentation
(c) Fragmentation.
(d) None of these

54.To preserve fruits, vegetables and pickles we add;
(a) Water and yogurt
(b) Salt and acid
(c) Flour and salt
(d) Onion and garlic

55.An enzyme produced by genetically modified organisms used to break up blood clots is called;
(a) Lipase
(b) Amylase
(c) Urokinase
(d) Peptidase

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November 8, 2024
10th Class biology Chapter 16: Man and His Environment

10th Class Chapter 16: Man and His Environment Short and Simple Question & Answer

We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 16 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 16 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

Q.1 What are the different levels of ecological organization?
Ans. The different levels of ecological organization are:
(i) species
(ii) population (iii) community (iv) ecosystem (v) biosphere

Q.2 Define ecosystem and its components.
Ans.The self-sufficient unit of an environment that is formed as a result of interactions between its communities and the abiotic components is called ecosystem.

Q.3 How flow of energy is different from that of materials?
Ans. The flow of energy in different trophic levels of ecosystem is unidirectional while the flow of materials is two directional. It flows from one trophic level to another by means of food chains and food web.

Q.4 Define food chain. Give one example (Board 2014)
Ans: A food chain is a series of organisms within an ecosystem, in which each organism feeds on the one before it and is fed by one after it.
Example
Grass Grasshopper Sparrow → Hawk

Q.5 Define food web.
Ans: In nature, food chains are very complex, as an organism may be the food source of many other.
organisms. So there is a web like structure formed by these interlinked food chains. Such
interconnected food chains collectively make food web. OR It may also be defined as, “a network of food chains which are interconnected at various trophic levels”.

Q.6 What do you mean by the concept of 3Rs with reference to the conservation of natural
resources?
Ans: It means Reduce, Reuse and Recycle the materials. Many materials such as paper, plastic, glass etc can be recycled. This decreases the volume of refuse and helps in the conservation of natural
resources.

Q.7 Define Acid rains.
Ans: Certain chemicals such as oxides of sulphur and nitrogen when react with water vapours in the presence of sunlight to form sulphuric acid and nitric acid. These acids remain as vapours at high temperatures. As temperature falls, the acids begin to condense into liquid form and mix with rain or snow, on the way down to the earth. This makes rain acidic with pH range of 3-6.

Q.8 What is ammonification?
Ans: Ammonification is the breakdown of the proteins of dead organisms and nitrogenous wastes (urea, uric acid etc.) to ammonia. It is done by ammonifying bacteria.

Q.9 What is atmospheric nitrogen fixation?
Ans: Thunderstorms and lightning convert atmospheric gaseous nitrogen into nitrous acid and nitric acid. The acids in turn combine with other salts to produce ‘nitrates’ this is called atmospheric nitrogen fixation.

Q.10 What are biogeochemical cycles.
Ans: Biogeochemical cycles are the cyclic pathways through which materials move from environment to organisms and back to the environment. e.g. carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle etc.

Q.11 What is biological nitrogen fixation?
Ans: Some bacteria also have the ability to transform gaseous nitrogen into nitrates. It is called biological nitrogen fixation. Some of these nitrogen fixing bacteria live as symbionts and many are free living.

Q.12 Define Biosphere.
Ans: All ecosystems of the world together form the biosphere. It includes all the ecosystems of the earth. In other words, the biosphere consists of all organisms present on the earth and all regions of the earth where they live. Biosphere ranges from the floor of oceans to the top of the highest mountains. It is about 20 km thick.

Q.13 What is carbon cycle?
Ans: The biogeochemical cycle in which carbon flows between organisms and the environment is called carbon cycle.

Q.14 What are carnivores? Write the types of carnivores.
Ans: Those animals that feed upon other animals are called carnivores.
Types of carnivores
a) Primary carnivores
Those carnivores that feed upon herbivores are called primary carnivores.
Examples
Fox, frog, predatory birds, many fishes and snakes.
b) Secondary carnivores
Those carnivores that feed upon primary carnivores are called secondary carnivores.
Examples
Wolf and owl etc.
c) Tertiary carnivores
Those carnivores that feed upon secondary carnivores are called tertiary carnivores. They are not eaten by any other animals. So they are also called top carnivores.
Examples
Lion, Tiger etc.

Q.15 Define commensalism with examples.
Ans: It is a type of symbiosis in which one partner is benefited while the other is neither benefited nor harmed.
Example
Epiphytes are small plants found growing on other larger plants for space only. They absorb water and minerals from the atmosphere and prepare their own food. The larger plants are neither benefited nor harmed in any way.

Q.16 What are consumers?
Ans: These are the heterotrophs in an ecosystem. These organisms are unable to synthesize their food and so depend upon producers for food. The animals are the major consumers of all the ecosystems.
Examples
Animals, Fungi, Protozoans and many of the Bacteria.

Q.17 What are decomposers?
Ans: Those organisms that break down the complex organic compounds of dead matter (of plants and animals) into simple compounds. They secrete digestive enzymes into dead and decaying organic matter to digest the organic material. Products of digestion are absorbed for their own use and remaining substances are added to the environment for reuse.
Examples
Bacteria and fungi

Q.18 Define Deforestation and describe its causes.
Ans: Deforestation means clearing of forests by natural causes or humans. Causes of deforestation m
Large areas of forests have been cleaned for agriculture, factories, roads, rail tracks and mining.
Humans cut trees for getting wood (Timber), which is then used for making structures and for
heat production.
Human preys upon forest animals, which are the predators of many insect pests. In this way insect pests destroy forests by eating the shoots and spreading diseases.
Effects of deforestation
Floods
Droughts
Landslides
Soil erosions
Global warming
Loss of habitat of many species

Q.19 What is meant by denitrification?
Ans: It is a biological process in which nitrites and nitrates are reduced to gaseous nitrogen by denitrifying bacteria. In this way, nitrogen is returned to the atmosphere.

Q.20 What is ecological pyramid?
Ans: Ecological pyramid can be defined as, “A representation of the number of individuals or amount of biomass or energy present in various trophic levels of a food chain”.

Q.21 Define environment.
Ans: An organism’s environment is the sum of physical (abiotic) and biological (biotic) conditions which influence that organism.

Q.22 What is eutrophication?
Ans: Enrichment of water with inorganic nutrients (nitrates and phosphates) is called eutrophication.

Q.23 What is Global Warming and describe its effects.
Ans: The addition of greenhouse gases (e.g. carbon dioxide, methane, ozone) in atmosphere increases the temperature of the earth. Gases in the atmosphere do not allow solar radiations to reflect back into space. As a result, heat remains within the earth’s atmosphere and increases its temperature. This is called global warming.
Effect of global warming
Due to global warming, polar ice-caps and glaciers are melting faster than the time taken for new ice layers to form. Sea water is also expanding causes sea level to rise due to melting glaciers, rivers overflow and cause floods.

Q.24 Define mutualism.
Ans: The type of symbiosis in which both partner get benefit from each other and neither is harmed. Example
Termites eat wood but are unable to digest it. A protozoan lives in its intestine. It secretes. ‘cellulase’ enzyme to digest the cellulose of wood. In turn, the termite provides food and shelter to the protozoan.

Q.25 What are natural resources?
Ans: Every thing we use e.g. food, petrol etc. is obtained from natural resources. They are of two
types. (i) Renewable
(ii) Non-renewable

Q.26 What is nitrification?
Ans: After the formation of ammonia, it is converted into nitrites and nitrates. This is called nitrification and is done by nitrifying bacteria.

Q.27 What is nitrogen cycle?
Ans: The flow of nitrogen between environment and the organisms is called nitrogen cycle.

Q.28 What is nitrogen fixation?
Ans: Conversion of nitrogen gas into nitrates is called nitrogen fixation.

Q.29 What are non-renewable resources and renewable resources?
Ans: The renewable natural resources e.g. air are reproduced easily but the non-renewable resources (e.g. minerals and fossils fuels) are not replenished once they get depleted.

Q.30 What is overpopulation?
Ans: Increase in population beyond the carrying capacity of an area

Q.31 Define phytoplankton?
Ans: Photosynthetic organisms that float on the surface of water, are called phytoplankton.

Q.32 Define Pollution and pollutants.
Ans: Pollution is defined as any undesirable change in the physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air, water and land that may harmful for humans, other living organisms and natural resources. The substances that actually cause pollution are called pollutants.

Q.33 Define parasitism.
Ans: It is a type of symbiosis in which smaller partner (parasite) derives food and shelter from the body of larger partner (host) and, in turn, harms it.

Q.34 What is predation?
Ans: An interaction between animals of two species or a plant and an animal, in which the predator attacks, kills and feeds on the smaller animal called prey.

Q.35 What are producers?
Ans: These are the autotrophs in an ecosystem. These organisms are able to synthesize complex organic compounds (food) from inorganic raw materials. Producers form the basis of any ecosystem.
Examples Plants, Algae and Cyanobacteria

Q.36 Define pyramid of biomass.
Ans: It is a graphic representation of biomass present per unit area at various trophic levels of a food chain.
Example
In a terrestrial ecosystem, the maximum biomass is of producers and decomposers have lesser biomass.

Q.37 Define pyramid of numbers.
Ans: It is a graphic representation of the number of individuals per unit area at various trophic levels of a food chain.
Example Usually, producers are present in large number, primary consumers are in lesser number, and secondary consumers are fewer.

Q.38 Define symbiosis.
Ans: It is a relationship between members of different species, in which they live together for longer or shorter period of time.
Example
Lichens (Association between algae and fungi)

Q.39 Define Ecology.
Ans: The study of the interrelationship between living organisms and their environment is called ecology.

Q.40 Define Species.
Ans: A species is a group of organisms which can interbreed freely in nature to produce fertile offspring.
Example Human, Cat, Dog etc.

Q.41 Define Ecosystem.
Ans: The self-sufficient unit of an environment that is formed as a result of interactions between its biotic communities and the abiotic components is called ecosystem.

Q.42 What are herbivores?
Ans: These animals feed directly on plants or products of plants. They are also called primary consumers.
Examples
Cattle, deer, rabbit, grasshopper etc.

Q.43 What are omnivores?
Ans: Those consumers that eat animal flesh as well as plants and plant products are called omnivores.
Examples
Human, Crow

Q.44 Define trophic level.
Ans: Trophic level is the level at which an organism feeds in food chain. The first trophic level is made of producers; the second of primary consumers and so on.

Q.45 Define pyramid of energy.
Ans: It is a graphic representation of energy present in a biomass of living organisms at various trophic levels of a food chain.
Example
The amount of energy is decreased from producers to decomposers as some amount of energy is used by the organisms to perform work while some of it is lost as heat.

Q.46 What is meant by assimilation?
Ans: It is a process in which the nitrates are absorbed by plants and are utilized for making proteins, nucleic acid etc. Animals take nitrogenous compounds from plants. The utilization of nitrates by organisms is called assimilation.

Q.47 What is parasite?
Ans: A parasite is an organism that gets shelter and food from its host and in return harms it.
Examples Plasmodium, Amoeba etc.

Q.48 Define Urbanization.
Ans: Urbanization means growing of cities. People move from rural areas to cities in search of better jobs, education opportunities and higher standards of living.

Q.49 What are primary consumers? Give one example.
Ans: The organisms which feed directly on plants or products of plants are called primary consumers.
e.g. sheep, goat etc.

Q.50 Write four effects of air pollution.
Ans: i. Smog formation
ii. Acid rains
iii. Ozone depletion
iv. Global warming

Q.51 Define pollutants.
Ans: The substance that actually cause pollution called pollutants. They may be industrial effluents, domestic wastes, medical wastes etc. Pollutants are of two types:-
a. Biodegradable and
b. Non-biodegradable

Q.52 What is noise? Write its Effects.
Ans: Unwanted and annoying sounds are termed as noise. Effects of noise pollution are aggression, hearing loss, depression, hypertension etc.

Q.53 What is green house effect?
Ans: Certain gases trap heat in environment. These gases act like the glass in a green house which does not allow the inner heat to escape. When sunlight reaches to earth surface, much of its energy is converted into heat energy. Earth reflects the heat energy back into space in the form of infra-red radiation. Green house gases (CO2, CH4, Nitrous oxide) trap these infra-red radiations and send it back to earth.

Q.54 What is global warming?
Ans: The addition of green house gases (e.g; carbon dioxide, methane, ozone) in atmosphere increases the temperature of the earth. These gases remain in the lowest part of earth’s atmosphere and do not allow solar radiations to reflect back into the space. As a result, heat remains within the Earth’s atmosphere and increases its temperature. This is called global warming.

Q.55 Define biomass?
Ans: The total amount of living or organic matter in an ecosystem at any time is called biomass.

Q.56 Define nutrient cycle?
Ans: The movement of elements and inorganic compounds from environment to organisms and back to environment.

Q.57 What are the effects of denitrification?
Ans: Excessive denitrification reduces soil fertility and is stimulated by water-logging, lack of aeration and accumulation of organic matter in the soil.

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MCQs

1.Which of the following is the abiotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Producers
(b) Herbivores
(c) Carnivores
(d) Oxygen

2.When we eat the onion, our trophic level is;
(a) Primary consumer
(b) Secondary Consumer
(c) Decomposer
(d) Producer

3.Identify the correctly matched pair:
(a) Rainfall- biotic factors in ecosystem
(b) Global warming- formation of fossil fuels
(c) Renewable natural resources-air
(d) Corn- secondary consumer

4.In the food chain tree — caterpillar robin hawk coyote, which is secondary consumer?
(a) Caterpillar
(b) Robin
(c) Hawk
(d) Coyote

5.In an ecosystem the flow of is one way, while is/are constantly recycled.
(a) Minerals, energy
(b) Energy, minerals
(c) Oxygen, energy
(d) Glucose, water

6.In the food chain “grass rabbit fox — bear mushroom”, how many types of decomposers are present?
(a) 1
(c) 3
(b) 2
(d) 4

7.Organisms in the ecosystem that are responsible for the recycling of plant and animal wastes are;
(a) Consumers
(b) Producers
(c) Decomposers
(d) Competitors

8.Which form of Nitrogen is taken by the producers of the ecosystem?
(a) Nitrogen gas.
(b) Ammonia
(c) Nitrites
(d) Nitrates

9.The type of environment in which a particular species lives is called;
(a) Ecosystem
(b) Habitat
(c) Biosphere
(d) Community

10.Which of the following organisms are decomposers?
(a) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(b) Algae
(d) Both a & c.

11.The lowest trophic level of an ecosystem always includes:
(a) Herbivores
(b) Carnivores
(c) Producers
(d) Decomposers

12.Habitat destruction can result in a loss of:
(a) Species
(b) Population
(c) Community
(d) Ecosystem

13.The type of symbiotic relationship in which one member get benefit and other is unaffected is called:
(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Commensalism
(d) Predation

14.Which one is not an example of abiotic factor?
(a) Decomposers
(b) Light
(c) Water
(d) Soil

15.An organism that actively hunts other organisms is called:
(a) Prey
(b) Predator
(c) Parasite
(d) Host

16.The type of symbiotic relationship in which one member get benefit and other is harmed is called:
(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Commensalism
(d) Predation

17.Organisms that make their own food with help of sunlight, CO₂ and H₂O are called;
(a) Consumers
(b) Producers
(c) Decomposers
(d) Predators

18.The conversion of ammonia to nitrates is carried out by soil bacteria. This process is called:
(a) Nitrification
(b) Denitrification
(c) Nitrogen fixation
(d) Assimilation

19.A group of organisms, similar to one another, which can interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring:
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Family
(d) Population

20.Water, soil, air, temperature, wind and sunlight are examples of:
(a) Biotic factors
(b) Biomass
(c) Environment
(d) Abiotic factors

21.A relationship between two organisms in which individual of one species may kill and eat individuals of other species is called:
(a) Symbiosis
(b) Competition
(c) Predation
(d) Mutualism

22.A relationship between species in which both species benefit is called:
(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Symbiosis
(d) Commensalism

23.The self-sufficient unit of environment that is formed as a result of interaction between its biotic community and its abiotic components is known as:
(a) Biosphere
(b) Habitat
(c) Ecosystem
(d) Food web

24.A network of all the feeding relationships in an ecosystem is called:
(a) Food chain
(b) Food web
(c) Trophic level
(d) Energy flow

25.The thickness of biosphere is:
(a) 02 km
(c) 50 km
(b) 20 km
(d) 200 km

26.get solar energy and transform it into chemical energy by the process of photosynthesis.
(a) Decomposers
(b) Producers
(c) Consumers
(d) Predators

27.The materials flow from one trophic level to the next by means of;
(a) Food chains
(b) Food web
(c) Both a & b
(d) None

28.The base of food chain is always formed by;.
(a) Producers
(b) Consumers
(c) Decomposers
(d) Heterotrophs

29.In 1927, developed the concept of ecological pyramids.
(a) Kelvin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Charles Elton
(d) Charles Darwin

30.atom is the principal building block of many kinds of biomolecules.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Nitrogen

31.Which one of the following is not an example of fossil fuels?
(a) Plants
(b) Peat
(c) Coal
(d) Natural Gas

32.The major process that brings carbon from atmosphere into living world is:
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Both a & b
(d) None

33.Nitrogen is an important component of:
(a) Proteins
(b) Nucleic Acid
(c) Lipids
(d) Both a & b

34.is the breakdown of the proteins of dead organisms to ammonia.
(a) Ammonification
(b) Nitrification
(c) Denitrification
(d) None

35.The utilization of nitrates by organisms is called:
(a) Nitrification
(b) Ammonification
(c) Assimilation
(d) Denitrification

36.Which one of the following is not a temporary parasite?
(a) Mosquito
(b) Virus
(c) Leech
(d) Bed bug

37.Which one of the following is not an endoparasite?
(a) Ascaris
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Entamoeba
(d) Mosquito

38.An epiphyte is an example of:
(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Commensalism
(d) Symbiosis

39.Which one is an example of epiphyte?
(a) Mosquito
(b) Orchid
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Plasmodium

40.Which of the following is not an example of green house gas?
(a) CO2
(b) Methane
(c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrous Oxide

41.The current level of urbanization in Pakistan is about which is not high by global standards.
(a) 23%
(b) 32%
(c) 36%
(d) 39%

42.Abiotic component of ecosystem is;
(a) Producers
(b) Herbivores
(c) Carnivores
(d) Oxygen

43.A symbiotic interaction in which both partners get benefits;
(a) Mutualism
(b) Commensalism
(c) Parasitism
(d) Predation

44.The consumers that eat animal flesh as well as plants and plant products are called: (Board 2013)
(a) Herbivores
(b) Carnivores
(c) Omnivores
(d) Insectivores

45.Living of nitrogen fixer bacteria in the root nodules of leguminous plants is an example of;
(a) Predation
(b) Parasitism
(c) Mutualism
(d) Commensalism

46.The perfect cycle is;
(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Water cycle
(d) All of the above

47.Nitrogenous waste includes;
(a) Ammonia
(b) Urea
(c) Uric acid
(d) All of the above

48.Plants show competition for;
(a) Space
(b) Light
(c) Water and Minerals
(d) All of the above

49.Flow of energy is always;
(a) Unidirectional
(b) Two directional
(c) Multidirectional
(d) No directional

50.IPCC stands for;
(a) International project of climate change
(b) Intergovernmental Project of climate change
(c) Intergovernmental panel on climate change
(d) International panel on climate change

51.The temperature of Earth’s surface has increased per decade in the past 30 years;
(a) 0.1°C
(b) 0.2°C
(c) 0.3°C
(d) 0.4°C

52.Since 1800, amount of CO2 in atmosphere has increased about;
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%

53.Since 1800, amount of nitrous oxide has increased about;
(a) 2%
(b) 6%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%

54.According to estimate at the current rate of increase, the average global temperature will go upto by in the next 100 years.
(a) 8°C
(b) 6-8°C
(c) 3-8°C
(d) 5-8°C

55.Pakistan growth rate in 1991 was;
(a) 2%
(b) 2.50%
(c) 2.69%
(d) 2.89%

56.In 2003, a survey on tanneries in Kasur City showed that of cancer residents suffered from infections of kidney or loss of eyesight.
(a)1/4
(B)2/3
(C)1/3
(d)2/4

57.Recycling of one tonne paper can save.
(a) 10 trees
(b) 15 trees
(c) 18 trees
(d) 17 trees

58.people are at risk of dengue.
(a) 1.5 billion
(b) 2.5billion
(c) 3.5 billion
(d) 2.5 million

59.Scientists fear that sea level is rising upto per year.
(a) 0.8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 0.9 cm
(d) 9 cm

60.It is estimated that Maldives might become uninhabitable within;
(a) 50 years
(b) 80 years
(c) 100 years
(d) 130 years

61.When living and non-living interact to produce a stable system in which exchange of material with flow of energy takes place, it forms a/an:
(a) Environment
(b) Stable community
(c) Ecosystem
(d) Ecological succession

62.The living organisms which cannot prepare their own food but obtain ready made food from others, are;
(a) Primary and Secondary consumers
(b) Secondary and tertiary consumers
(c) Only primary consumers
(d) All types of Consumers.

63.How many tanneries are operating in Kasur city;
(a) More than 300
(b) More than 200
(c) 500
(d) 1000

64.Upper layer of the atmosphere is called;
(a) Biosphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Stratosphere

65.At which trophic level in a food chain, carnivores get food?
(a) First trophic level
(b) Second trophic level
(c) Fourth trophic level
(d) Third trophic level

66.Fungi digest the dead organic matter with the help of;
(a) Enzymes
(b) Acids
(c) Hormones
(d) Bases

67.Which is an ectoparasite?
(a) Liver fluke
(b) Ascaris
(c) Tape worm
(d) Leech

68.The favourable variations tend to be;
(a) Eliminated
(b) Passed to next generation
(c) Unexpressed
(d) Changed

69.Habitat is an example of;
(a) Biological character
(b) Chemical character
(c) Physical Character
(d) Behavioural character

70.A group of organisms which can interbreed freely in nature to produce fertile offspring is called;
(a) Population
(b) Community
(c) Species
(d) Ecosystem

71.An Aquarium is an example of Ecosystem;
(a) Natural
(b) Artificial
(c) Aquatic
(d) Terrestrial

72.Graphic representation of the number of individuals per unit area at various trophic levels of a food chain is called;
(a) Pyramid of Biomass
(b) Pyramid of numbers
(c) Pyramid of energy
(d) Food web

73.More than normal denitrification change the richness of soil as;16(085)
(a) Increase
(b) Less
(c) Bad
(d) Finished

74.An example of Carnivore plants is:
(a) Rose plant
(b) Mosses
(c) Pitcher plant
(d) Ferns

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Class 10 Biology Chapter-16 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

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November 8, 2024
10th Class biology Chapter 15: Inheritance

10th Class Chapter 15: Inheritance Short and Simple Question & Answer

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Q.1 Define Genetics.
Ans. It is a branch of biology which deals with the study of inheritance.

Q.2 Define Inheritance.
Ans: Inheritance means the transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring.

Q.3 What are traits? Write two human traits.
Ans. Characters which are transmitted from parents to offspring are called traits. In man, height, eye colour etc are examples of traits and are inheritable.

Q.4 What are Genes?
Ans. Genes are segments of DNA. Each specific gene contains instructions for the synthesis of specific protein.

Q.5 What are homologous chromosomes?
Ans. The body cells have constant number of paired chromosomes. The two chromosomes of a pair are called as homologous chromosomes. For example, in human body cells, there are 23pairs of homologous chromosomes for a total of 46 chromosomes.

Q.6 How is chromatin/ chromosome made up of?
Ans. Chromatin or chromosome is made up of DNA and protein.

Q.7 What is nucleosome?
Ans. In chromatin, DNA wraps around histone proteins and form round structure called as nucleosome. DNA is also present between nucleosomes. In this way, nucleosomes and DNA between them look like beads on string.

Q.8 Define Double helix.
Ans. DNA consists of two polynucleotide strands which are coiled around each other in the form of Double helix. There is phosphate-sugar backbone on outside, while nitrogenous bases are on inside of double helix.

Q.9 Define DNA replication.
Ans. It is a process in which one parental DNA is divided into two genetically identical daughter DNA molecules.

Q.10 What is the purpose of DNA replication?
Ans. DNA replication is done to make the copies of chromatids of chromosomes.

Q.11 How does DNA work?
Ans. DNA is genetic material. It performs its role by giving instructions for the synthesis of specific proteins. Some proteins perform structural role while others act as enzymes to control all bio-chemical reactions of cells.

Q.12 Differentiate between transcription and translation.
Ans. Transcription
It is a process in which specific sequence of DNA nucleotides is copied in the form of messenger RNA (mRNA).
ii. Translation The mRNA carries the sequence of its nucleotides to ribosomes. Ribosomes read this sequence and joins specific amino acids, according to it proteins are synthesized.

Q.13 Define a Gene. Write symbols of Genes for any two traits.
Ans. Definition
Particular segment of DNA that contains instructions for synthesis of particular protein is called as gene.
OR
Particular sequence of nucleotides that contains instructions for synthesis of particular protein is called as gene.
Symbols of Genes
The trait of round seeds (controlled by allele R) was dominant over wrinkled (controlled by. allele r) seeds. Similarly yellow seed (controlled by Y) was dominant over green (controlled by y).

Q.14 Define Allele.
Ans. Genes occur in pairs on homologous chromosomes. Each member of gene pair is called as allele. The alternative forms of a gene are called as alleles e.g. ‘A’ and ‘a’ are two alternative forms of a gene or ‘B’ and ‘b’ are two another alternative forms of a gene.

Q.15 Define Locus.
Ans. Location or position of gene on chromosome is called as its locus.

Q.16 What is genotypė? Describe its Types.
Ans. The specific combinations of genes in an individual is known as genotype. It has two types i.e. Homozygous and Heterozygous
(i) Homozygous Genotypes.
The genotype in which gene pair contains two identical alleles (AA,aa) is called as homozygous genotype.
(ii) Heterozygous genotype
The genotype in which gene pair contains two different alleles (Aa) is called as heterozygous
genotype.

Q.17 Define Albinism
Ans. It is a condition in which normal body pigments are absent.

Q.18 Differentiate between dominant alleles and recessive allele.
Ans. i. Dominant Allele
In the heterozygous condition, one allele masks or prevents the expression of the other, such allele is called as dominant allele. Dominant alleles are represented by capital letters e.g., I^ IB
ii. Recessive Allele
The allele which is not expressed is called as recessive allele. Recessive alleles are represented by lower case letters e.g., ii.

Q.19 What features should be present in an organism used for genetic experiments?
Ans. Organism used in genetic experiments should have following features:-
There should be number of different traits that can be studied.
The organism should have contrasting traits e.g. for the trait of height, there should be only two very different phenotypes i.e. Tallness and dwarfness.
The organisms (if it is plant) should be self-fertilizing but cross fertilization should also be possible.
The organism, should have a short but fast life cycle.

Q.20 Differentiate between monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross. OR Define monohybrid and dihybrid cross.
Ans. A cross in which only one trait is studied at a time is called as monohybrid cross e.g. cross between true-breeding round seeded plant and true breeding wrinkled seeded plant. In this case one trait i.e seed shape is under study.
A cross in which two traits are studied at a time is called as dihybrid cross e.g. cross between true breeding round yellow seeded plants and wrinkled green seeded plants. In this case, two traits i.e. seed shape and seed colour are under study.

Q.21 What is meant by P_{1} F_{1} and F_{2} generations?
Ans. P1 generation First parental generation is known as P1 generation.
F1 generation
Means first filial. The offspring of P_{1} generation are called as F_{1} generation.
F2 Generation
Means second filial. The offspring of F 1. generation are called as F_{2} Generation.

Q.22 Define Law of Segregation.
Ans. This law states that during gamete formation, the genes (alleles) of each pair segregate from each other and each gamete receives one gene from the pair when the gametes of male and female parents unite, the resulting offspring again gets the genes in pairs.

Q.23 Define Mendel’s Law of independent assortment.
Ans. This law states that the alleles of a gene pair segregate (get separated and distributed to gametes) independently from the alleles of other gene pairs.

Q.24 Define co-dominance. Give an example.
Ans. It is a situation. in which two different alleles of a gene pair express themselves completely, instead of showing a dominant-recessive relationship. As a result, heterozygous organisms shows a phenotype that is different from both homozygous parents. For example human blood group AB.

Q.25 Define incomplete dominance. Give example.
Ans. It is a situation in which phenotypic expression of heterozygous organism is intermediate to phenotype expressions shown by both homozygous organisms. Both alleles in heterozygous organisms express this blend (mixture) and neither allele is dominant over the other.
For example pink flowered four o’clock plant.

Q.26 Define variation. Give sources of variations.
Ans. Differences shown by individuals of same species are called variations. Important sources of variations are as following:-
(i) Crossing Over
(ii) Mutation
(iii) Random Fertilization
(iv) Gene flow

Q.27 Define Gene flow.
Ans. Movement of genes from one population to other population is called gene flow;

Q.28 Describe types of variations with examples.
Ans. There are two types of variations:
1. Continuous variations
Those variations in which phenotypes show a complete range of measurements from one extreme to other are called as continuous variations.
Height, weight, feet size, intelligence etc. are examples of continuous variations. In every human population, the individuals have a range of heights. No populations can show only two or three distinct heights. Continuous variations are controlled by many genes and are then affected by environmental factors.
2. Discontinuous variations
These are the variations which show distinct phenotypes which can be easily distinguished from each other. The phenotypes of such variations cannot be measured.
Blood groups are good examples of discontinuous variations. In human population, an individual has one of the four distinct blood groups and cannot have in between. Such variations are controlled by alleles of single gene. The environment has little effect on this type of variations.

Q.29 Define Organic or Biological Evolution.
Ans. Organic or Biological evolution is change in characteristics of population or species of organisms over the course of generations.
The changes in an individual are not considered as evolution because evolution refers to populations, not to the individuals.

Q.30 What processes are involved in Organic evolution.
Ans. There are two major processes involved in organic evolution.
Alteration in genetic characteristics (traits) of a type of organisms over time.
Creation of new types of organisms from a single type.

Q.31 What is anti-evolution or theory of special creation?
Ans. The anti-evolution idea supports that all living things had been created in their current form only a few thousand years ago. It is also known as theory of special creation.

Q.32 Define Natural selection.
Ans. Natural selection is process by which the better genetic variations become more common in successive generations of population.

Q.33 Define Artificial selection/selective breeding
Ans. Artificial selection (selective breeding) means intentional breeding between individuals for certain traits or combination of traits.

Q.34 Differentiate between breeds and varieties or cultivars.
Ans. In artificial selection, the bred animals are known as breeds, while bred plants are known as varieties or cultivars.

Q.35 Define genotype and phenotype.
Ans. Genotype
The specific combination of genes in an individual is known as genotype.
Phenotype
The expressión of genotype in the form of trait is known as phenotype.

Q.36. What is template strand?
Ans. The strand of DNA to which new strand is formed called template strand.

Q.37. Define Punnett Square?
Ans. It is a diagram used to predict an outcome of a particular cross or breeding experiment. The gametes of both parents having all possible genetic make-up (set-ups) are determined.

Q.38. What will be Genotype of plants produced as a result of cross between two plants having Genotype Rr?
Ans. When two heterozygous plants with pink flowers (Rr) are crossed, F2 generation shows
phenotypes of red, pink and white flowers in ratio 1:2:1.

1.Which part of carpel receives pollen grains during pollination
(a) Ovary
(b) Style
(c) Stigma
(d) None of these

2.The development of egg without fertilization is called
(a)Parthenogenesis
(b)Budding
(c)Spore formation
(d)Fission

3.The principal adaptations for insect attraction are
(a)Color
(b)Scent
(c)Nectar
(d)All of these

4.External fertilization occurs mostly in
(a)Aquatic animals
(b)Land animals
(c)Protozoans
(d)None of these

5.Which does not belong to stamen
(a)Filament
(b)Anther
(c)Pollen sacs
(d)Stigma

6.The ability of organisms to produce young ones of their own kind to maintain the species is called
(a)Transpiration
(b)Reproduction
(c)Respiration
(d)Photosynthesis

7.Which is not an example insect pollinated flower?
(a)Rose
(b)Buttercup
(c)Orchid
(d)Corn

8.The endosperm tissue in the angiosperms consists of
(a)Haploid
(b)Diploid
(c)Triploid
(d)Tetraploid

9.Which one of the following is not characteristic of sexual reproduction?
(a)Formation of gametes
(b)Fusion of gametes to form zygote
(c)Genetically alike individuals from a parent
(d)Adaptation of a species

10.In which parts of flower does meiosis occur?
(a)Anther
(b)Petal
(c)Receptacle
(d)Sepal

11.What is the optimum range of temperature for the germination of seeds?
(a)5-30oC
(b)15-30oC
(c)20-30oC
(d)25-30oC

12.The type of asexual reproduction that occurs in hydra is
(a)Multiple fission
(b)Budding
(c)Regeneration
(d)Parthenogenesis

13.Which one of the following is not an artificial method of asexual reproduction
(a)Layering
(b)Budding
(c)Cutting
(d)Grafting

14.After fertilization, which structure develops into the seed of a flowering plant?
(a)Carpel
(b)Ovule
(c)Ovum
(d)Stamen

15.Asexual reproduction occurs through spore formation in
(a)Amoeba
(b)Yeast
(c)Rhizopus
(d)All of these

16.Internal fertilization is common in
(a)Aquatic animals
(b)Land animals
(c)Protozoans
(d)None of these

17.In plants, the spore develops into
(a)Gametophyte
(b)Sporophyte
(c)Both of these
(d)None of these

18.Examples of parthenogenesis in animals except
(a)Ant
(b)Honey bee
(c)Hydra
(d)Wasp

19.Oogenesis takes place in
(a)Testes
(b)Ovaries
(c)Anther
(d)None of these

20.Pollen sacs contain
(a)Megaspores
(b)Microspores
(c)Micropyle
(d)Ovule

21.Which structure of seed absorbs water during the process of its germination?
(a)Hilum
(b)Micropyle
(c)Hypocotyl
(d)Epicotyl

22.Fertilization may be
(a)External
(b)Internal
(c)Both of these
(d)None of these

23.Which is the pathway taken by a pollen tube after pollination of a flower?
(a)Filament-stigma-style
(b)Ovule-style-stigma
(c)Stigma-filament-ovule
(d)Stigma-style-ovule

24.What type of cell division occurs in asexual reproduction
(a)Mitosis
(b)Meiosis
(c)Both a & b
(d)None of these

25.In plants meiosis takes place
(a)In During the formation of gametes by haploid plant
(b)During the formation of gametes by diploid plant
(c)During the formation of spores by the diploid plant
(d)All of these

26.The process which leads to the union of gametes is known as
(a)Reproduction
(b)Fertilization
(c)Development
(d)None of these

27.Double fertilization is a special process found in
(a)Angiosperms
(b)Gymnosperms
(c)Gymnosperms
(d)None of these

28.Following are the common asexual methods of reproduction except
(a)Pollination
(b)Multiple fission
(c)Grafting
(d)Fragmentation

29.What type of cell division occurs in sexual reproduction
(a)Mitosis
(b)Meiosis
(c)Both a & b
(d)None of these

30.The female gametophyte of angiosperms consists of
(a)5 cells
(b)7 cells
(c)8 cells
(d)10 cells

31.Which does not belong to carpel?
(a)Ovary
(b)Style
(c)Anther
(d)Stigma

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Class 10 Biology Chapter-15 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

He purpose of these notes was to make them as effective as possible. However, mistakes are still possible, no matter how hard we try. Either way, if you see them, please let us know by commenting below. We appreciate your ideas and suggestions to improve the learning material. Our efforts are meant to benefit the entire community, so we encourage you to share them with your friends because “Sharing is Caring.”

November 8, 2024
10th Class biology Chapter 14: Reproduction

10th Class Chapter 14: Reproduction Short and Simple Question & Answer

We are aware that you are searching for class 10 biology chapter 14 notes on the internet. The notes are well written, clear and organized in an easy to understand manner and according to the new syllabus. At the bottom of these notes, you’ll find a download button to make your life easier. These User Interaction Notes for Class 10 Biology Chapter 14 are available to download or view. Many students practice 2024 biology notes questions by FAIZ UL ISLAM and get good marks in the exam.

Q1. Define reproduction.
Ans. Reproduction is defined as the production of individuals of the same species i.e. the next generation of species.

Q2. What are types of reproduction?
Ans. (i) Asexual reproduction
It means the simple cell division that produces an exact duplicate of an organism.
(ii) Sexual reproduction
It involves the joining of male and female sex cells i.e gametes.

Q3. Define binary fission.
Ans. Binary fission means division into two. It is the simplest and most common method of asexual reproduction. It occurs in prokaryotes, many unicellular eukaryotes e.g. protozoa and some invertebrates.

Q4. What is Fragmentation?
Ans. The type of asexual reproduction in which the organisms break up into pieces. For example, planarian breaks into 8-9 pieces instead of two.

Q5. Define Budding.
Ans. It is the type of asexual reproduction in which a bud develops as a small outgrowth on parents body. For example, in yeast, a small bud is formed on one side of body of cell. The nucleus of cell divides and one of the nucleus is passed on to bud and form new cell.

Q6. Differentiate between spore and endospore.
Ans. Spore
In most of fungi like rhizopus, when they reaches at reproduction age, its body cells form thick walled sacs called sporangia. Inside each sporangia, a cell divides many times and forms many daughter cells called spore.
Endospore
Under unfavourable conditions, some species of bacteria reproduce by forming spores e.g., Clostridium and Bacillus species. Thick walled spores are formed inside bacterial cell. This is called endospores.

Q7. Define Parthenogenesis.
Ans. Type of asexual reproduction in which an unfertilized egg develops into new offspring. For example, some fishes, frogs and insects reproduce by means of parthenogenesis.

Q8. What is Vegetative propagation?
Ans. When vegetative parts of plants i.e. the roots, stems or leaves give rise to new plants, the process is called vegetative propagation.

Q9. What is Cuttings?
Ans. In this method, cuttings may be taken mainly from stems or roots of parent plant. When cuttings are placed in a suitable soil and under light conditions, they may form roots and shoots. These roots and shoots grow and develop into a new plant. Examples are roses, ivy and grapevines.

Q10. Define Grafting.
Ans. In this method, a piece of stem is cut from the plant and is attached with another plant. After a while, the vascular system of attached stem and the host plant are connected. The stem piece and the plant begin to grow together. Examples are Roses, peach trees and various seedless fruits.

Q11. What is Alternation of Generation in plants.
Ans. In the life cycle of flowering plants, the two generations alternate with each other. The phenomenon in which the sporophyte generation gives rise to gametophyte and gametophyte generation gives rise to sporoplyte is called alternation of generation.

Q12. Define Double fertilization.
Ans. The type of fertilization in which one sperm fuses with egg and forms a zygote. The other sperm fuses with the diploid fusion nucleus and forms a triploid endosperm nucleus. This process is called double fertilization.

Q13. What is Pollination?
Ans. The transfer of pollen grains from flower’s anther to stigma.
Types
a) Self pollination
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or the other flower of same plant.
b) Cross pollination
The transfer of pollen grains from the flower on one plant to the flower on other plant of same
species.

Q14. What is seed coat?
Ans. It is the outer protective covering of a seed. It may be paper thin layer or thick and hard. Seed coat protects embryo from mechanical injury and from drying.

Q15. Define Hilum.
Ans. Hilum is a scar on seed coat, where the seed is attached to ovary wall.

Q16. Give the Difference between epicotyl and hypocotyl.
Ans. The embryonic stem above the point of attachment to cotyledon is called epicotyl and the embryonic stem below the point of attachment to cotyledon is called hypocotyl.

Q17. Differentiate between epigeal and hypogeal germination. (Board 2013)
Ans. In epigeal germination, the hypocotyl elongates and forms a hook, pulling the cotyledons above the ground, e.g. beans and cotton while in hypogeal germination, the epicotyl elongates and forms the hook, the cotyledons stay underground e.g. pea and maize.

Q18. Define Germination.
Ans. It is a process by which a seed embryo develops into a seedling.

Q19. What is Fertilization?
Ans. After the formation of gametes, fertilization occurs. These are of two types:
(a) External fertilization
In external fertilization, egg cells are fertilized outside the body. It requires both the male and the female animals to release their gametes into their surroundings at the same time. It occurs in most
of the invertebrates, fishes and amphibians.
(b) Internal fertilization
In internal fertilization, egg cells are fertilized within the reproductive tract of female. It occurs in reptiles, birds and mammals.

Q20. Define Semen.
Ans. It is the materials containing sperms in a fluid. It consists of 10% sperms and 90% fluid.

Q.21 Define acrosome.
Ans. Cap-like head of sperm cell which helps it in penetrating the egg cell is called acrosome.

Q.22 What do you know about cervix?
Ans: In female reproductive system, the part which separates uterus from vagina is called cervix.

Q.23 What is Cowper’s gland? Where sperms of male are deposited.
Ans: An accessory gland in rabbit’s male reproductive system which provides lubrication to the ducts. Cervix is the portion of uterus where sperms of male are deposited.

Q.24 Define Epididimys.
Ans: A storage area for sperms on the upper part of the testes is called epididimys.

Q.25 Define Fallopian tube.
Ans: A part of the female reproductive system, receives egg cell discharged from the ovary.

Q.26 What is Follicle?
Ans: A structure in the ovary in which the mature egg develops.

Q.27 What is parthenocarpy?
Ans: The process in which ovaries develop into fruit without the fertilization inside the ovules present in them, it results in seedless fruits e.g. bananas.

Q.28 What is prostate glands?
Ans: An accessory gland in the male reproductive system, produces a secretion that neutralizes the acidity..

Q.29 What is seminal vesicle?
Ans: The associated gland in male reproductive system produces secretions having nutrients for the sperms.

Q.30 Define seminiferous tubule.
Ans: These are coiled tubes present in testes and sperms are formed in these tubules.

Q.31 Define uterus horn.
Ans: The two separate parts of the uterus in the female rabbit are like horns so they are called uterus horns.

Q.32 What is vas deferens?
Ans: The tubes that carry sperms from each testis to the urethra.

Q.33 How multiple fission in Amoeba takes place?
Ans: Some unicellular organisms (e.g. Amoeba) form hard walls called cysts around them under unfavourable conditions. When favourable, conditions return, the nucleus of parent divides into many daughter nuclei and the division of cytoplasm occurs.
Each cytoplasm along with nucleus form daughter cell, so a large number of daughter cells are formed from a single parent. This is how multiple fission takes place in Amoeba.

Q.34 What is difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
Ans: The process of formation of sperms in testes is called spermatogenesis while the process of formation of eggs in ovaries is called oogenesis.

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MCQs

1.Growing an entire new plant from part of the original plant is called;
(a) Budding
(b) Regeneration
(c) Fragmentation
(d) Vegetative propagation

2.Rhizopus reproduces asexually by;
(a) Binary fission
(b) Budding
(c) Spore formation
(d) Endospore formation

3.A corm develops into new garlic plant.
This is the process of;
(a) Vegetative propagation
(b) Regeneration
(c) Meiosis
(d) Gametogenesis

4.Which is not an advantage of grafting?
(a) The graft is identical to the parent plant
(b) Grafting allows the propagation of seedless fruits
(c) The graft combines the characteristics of two plants
(d) Grafting may allow for the faster production of desirable fruits

5.Pollination is the transfer of pollens from;
(a) Anther to stigma
(b) Stigma to anther
(c) Sepal to petal
(d) Petal to sejpal

6.Double fertilization in plants means;
(a) Fusion of two sperms with two egg cells
(b) Fusion of cone sperm with egg cell and other sperm with fusion nucleus
(c) Fusion of two sperms with single egg cell
(d) Fusion of tube nucleus with fusion nucleus and sperm egg cell

7.After fertilization in plants, the fruit develops from;
(a) Ovule wall
(b) Ovary wall,
(c) Petals
(d) Anther

8.Which part of female reproductive system receives egg cells from the ovary?
(a) Fallopian tube
(b) Uterus
(c) Vagina
(d) Collecting duct

9.Inside testes, sperms are produced in;
(a) Vas deferens
(b) Sperm duct
(c) Seminiferous tubules
(d) Collecting duct

10.Which of these cell has haploid number of chromosomes?
(a) Spermatogonium
(b) Primary spermatocyte
(c) Secondary spermatocyte
(d) All of these

11.During binary fission, the nucleus of parent organism divides into two by;
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Meiosis
(c) Mitosis
(d) None of these

12.If a planarian breaks into many pieces instead of two, it will be called;
(a) Budding
(b) Spore formation
(c) Binary fission
(d) Fragmantaion

13.In fungi, the spore is covered by a thick wall called;
(a) Sporangium
(b) Sporophyte
(c) Cyst
(d) Endospores

14.The eggs of the honeybee remain unfertilized and develops into haploid males by;
(a) Budding
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) Regeneration
(d) Parthenogenesis

15.In tissue culture technique, cell starts mitosis and produce masses of cells called;
(a) Clonning
(b) Graftings
(c) Calluses
(d) Rhizome

16.During binary fission, how many cells are formed?
(a) Two daughter cells
(b) Four cells
(c) Many cells
(d) All of these

17.In the buds do not detach from 17. In the parent body.
(a) Hydra
(b) Amoeba
(c) Bacteria
(d) Corals

18.Spores which are formed inside bacterial cells are called;
(a) Cysts
(b) Spores
(c) Endospores
(d) All of these

19.Which of followings reproduces by bulbs?
(a) Garlic
(b) Ginger
(c) Ferns
(d) Tulips

20.Which method of propagation is also called micro-propagation?
(a) Cuttings
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Grafting
(d) Suckers

21.Flowers of wind pollination produce;
(a) Petals
(b) Nectar
(c) No nectar
(d) Do not reproduce

22.Buttercup is an example of;
(a) Wind pollinated flower
(b) Insect pollinated flower
(c) Water pollinated flower
(d) None of these

23.Which of these germinate by epigeal germination?
(a) Pea
(b) Maize
(c) Beans
(d) Coconut

24.The optimum temperature for the germination of the seeds of most plants ranges from;
(a) 20-30° C
(b) 25-35°C
(c) 25-30°C
(d) 20-25°C

25.Many diploid oogonia are present in;
(a) Follicles
(b) Sperms
(c) Spermatids
(d) Scrotum

26.In which group of mammals, the fertilized egg does not develop inside the mother’s body?
(a) Chordates
(b) Egg laying mammals
(c) Placental mammals
(d) All of these

27.Where the sperms of rabbit are produced?
(a) Cowper’s glands
(b) Prostate gland
(c) Collecting ducts
(d) Seminiferous tubules

28.Where the sperms of male rabbit are deposited in the female rabbit?
(a) Horns
(b) Cervix
(c) Follicle
(d) Ovaries

29.Horizontal underground stems are called:
(a) Corms
(b) Rhizomes
(c) Tubers
(d) Bulbs

21.Flowers of wind pollination produce;
(a) Petals
(b) Nectar
(c) No nectar
(d) Do not reproduce

22.Buttercup is an example of;
(a) Wind pollinated flower
(b) Insect pollinated flower
(c) Water pollinated flower
(d) None of these

23.Which of these germinate by epigeal germination?
(a) Pea
(b) Maize
(c) Beans
(d) Coconut

24.The optimum temperature for the germination of the seeds of most plants ranges from;
(a) 20-30° C
(b) 25-35°C
(c) 25-30°C
(d) 20-25°C

25.Many diploid oogonia are present in;
(a) Follicles
(b) Sperms
(c) Spermatids
(d) Scrotum

26.In which group of mammals, the fertilized egg does not develop inside the mother’s body?
(a) Chordates
(b) Egg laying mammals
(c) Placental mammals
(d) All of these

27.Where the sperms of rabbit are produced?
(a) Cowper’s glands
(b) Prostate gland
(c) Collecting ducts
(d) Seminiferous tubules

28.Where the sperms of male rabbit are deposited in the female rabbit?
(a) Horns
(b) Cervix
(c) Follicle
(d) Ovaries

29.Horizontal underground stems are called:
(a) Corms
(b) Rhizomes
(c) Tubers
(d) Bulbs

30.Which part of flower is changed into fruit?
(a) Ovule
(b) Ovary
(c) Petals
(d) Anther

31.An example of Rhizome is:
(a) Onion
(b) Garlic
(c) Ginger
(d) potato

32.Method of asexual reproduction found in Amoeba is:
(a) Binary Fission
(b) Fragmentation
(c) Budding
(d) Spore formation

33.Double fertilization is a feature of:
(a) Seedless plants
(b) Gymnosperms
(c) Flowering plants
(d) Ferns

34.Simplest and common method of asexual reproduction is:
(a) Tissue culture
(b) Parthenogenesis
(c) Cloning
(d) Binary fission

35.Gametophyte is produced from:
(a) Gametes
(b) Zygote
(c) Spores
(d) Sporophyte

36.Roses, ivy, grapevines and sugarcane reproduce by:
(a) Leaves
(b) Suckers
(c) Cuttings
(d) Suckers and Cuttings

37.In which of the following, hypogeal germination takes place;
(a) Beans
(b) Maize
(c) Cotton
(d) Papaya

38.When was NACP established?
(a) 1947
(b) 1997
(c) 1987
(d) 2000

39.Into which part, ovule changes after fertilization?
(a) Fruit
(b) Seed
(c) Flower
(d) Leaf

40.In Honeybee the drones are:
(a) Female flies
(b) Male flies
(c) Workers
(d) Male and female flies

41.When Pakistan Federal Ministry of Health established NACP?
(a) 1947
(b) 1977
(c) 1987
(d) 2010

42.In rabbit, embryo develops into a new offspring in:
(a) 40-42 days
(b) 30-40 days
(c) 30-32 days
(d) 280 days

43.By the end of 2010, our population was:
(a) 176 million
(b) 400 million
(c) 180 million
(d) 500 million

44.In male rabbit, each testis consists of a mass of coiled tubes called the:
(a) Epididimys
(b) Cowper’s gland
(c) Seminiferous tubules
(d) Vas deferens

45.When secondary oocyte completes Meiosis II, how many haploid cells result:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

46.Which of the following are internal conditions for germination of seed:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Live embryo
(c) Sufficient food storage
(d) Live embryo and sufficient food storage

47.The endosperm nucleus is:
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
(d) Tetraploid

48.Which of the following reproduces by grafting?
(a) Ivy
(b) Pather Chut
(c) Plum Trees
(d) Both Ivy and Pather Chut

49.The second whorl of the flower is:
(a) Calyx
(b) Corolla
(c) Androecium
(d) Gynoecium

50.In which of the following, an unfertilized egg develops into new offspring?
(a) Vegetative propagation
(b) Spore formation
(c) Parthenogenesis
(d) Budding

51.Binary fission does not take place in:
(a) Echinoderms
(b) Bacteria
(c) Planaria
(d) Hydra

52.Which of the following also reproduces through fragmentation?
(a) Planaria
(b) Hydra
(c) Bacterium
(d) Yeast

53.Which generation is haploid?
(a) Sporophyte
(b) Endospore
(c) Gametophyte
(d) Sporophyte and Endospore

54.Female reproductive part of flower is:
(a) Androecium
(b) Calyx
(c) Corolla
(d) Gynoecium

55.Ferns reproduce by:
(a) Corms
(b) Rhizome
(c) Tubers
(d) Bulb

56.In most plants, Sporophyte is:
(a) Small in size
(b) Dominant
(c) Independent
(d) Dominant and independent

57.Spermatids are:
(a) Motile
(b) Active
(c) Non-motile
(d) Sperms

58.Which forms egg cell?
(a) Follicles
(b) Primary oocytes
(c) First polar body
(d) Secondary oocyte

59.Placenta is a structure which belongs to:
(a) birds
(b) mammals
(c) reptiles
(d) amphibians

60.UNFPA works in how many countries?
(a) 150
(b) 160
(c) 140
(d) 100

61.Ovary change into after ripen:
(a) Into seed
(b) Into fruit
(c) Into flower
(d) Into nectar

62.Sperms and fluid collectively called:
(a) Hormones
(b) Semen
(c) Follicle
(d) Scrotum

63.In which of the following animal groups, external fertilization takes place;
(a) Reptiles
(b) Amphibians
(c) Birds
(d) Mammals

64.Pollen grains are produced in anther. of flower by:
(a) Meiosis
(b) Mitosis
(c) Binary fission
(d) Multiple fission

65.Rhizopus reproduces by:
(a) Binary Fission
(b) Budding
(c) Spore formation
(d) Parthenogenesis

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November 8, 2024
10th Class biology Chapter 13: Support and Movement

10th Class Chapter 13: Support and Movement Short and Simple Question & Answer

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Q.1 Write the two characteristics of animals?
Ans. Movement and locomotion are the characteristics of animals.

Q.2 What do you mean by movement?
Ans. Movement is a general term meaning, the act of changing place or position by entire body or by its parts.

Q.3 How many types of movement are?
Ans. There are two types of movement:
i. Movements of body parts
ii. Locomotion

Q.4 What do you mean by locomotion?
Ans. Locomotion is the movement of an animal as a whole from one place to another.

Q.5 What is sternum?
Ans: Chest bone is called sternum.

Q.6 What do you know about osteoarthritis?
Ans: It is due to degeneration in cartilage present at joints or due to decrease in lubricant production at joints. In this arthritis, fusion of the bones at joint may occur and joints may become totally immoveable.

Q.7 What is Rheumatoid arthritis? Or Write down causes of Rheumatoid Arthritis, also give its two symptons.
Ans: It involves the inflammation of the membranes at joints. Its symptoms are fatigue, low grade fever, pain and stiffness of joints.

Q.8 What do you mean by “Exoskeleton”?
Ans. The skeleton system of some invertebrates e.g. arthropods are at the outside of the body, and are called exoskeleton.

Q.9 What is skeleton? Define briefly.
Ans. Skeleton system or skeleton is defined as the framework of hard, articulated structure that provides physical support, attachment for skeletal muscles and protection for the bodies of animals.

Q.10 What do you mean by endoskeleton?
Ans. Like other vertebrates, the human skeleton is on the inside of body and is called endoskeleton.

Q.11 What is the role of skeletal system?
Ans. The big functions of skeletal system are protection, support and movement of a body. Skeleton works very closely with the muscular system to help us in movement. Similarly skeleton also provides protection to many internal organs e.g. skull protects brain and vertebral column. It also provides the main support to our body mass.

Q.12 What do you know about bone and cartilage?
Ans. Bone and cartilage are types of connective tissues in animals. Most connective tissue contains collagen fibers in a matrix. Cartilage is dense clear firm connective tissue while bone is hardest connective tissues.

Q.13 Define cartilage. Write names of its two types.
Ans. Definition:
Cartilage is a dense, clear blue-white firm connective tissue (but less strong than bone).
Names of two types:
1.Hyaline Cartilage
2.Elastic Cartilage

Q.14 What are the cells of cartilage called?
Ans. The cells of cartilage are called chondrocytes.

Q.15 Where the chondrocyte lies?
Ans. Each chondrocyte lies in a fluid space called lacuna, present in the matrix of cartilage.

Q.16 How many types of cartilage are there?
Ans. There are three types of cartilage:
i. Hyaline cartilage
ii. Elastic cartilage
iii. Fibrous cartilage

Q.17 What are tendons and ligaments?
Ans. Tendons and ligaments are connective tissues that contain tightly packed collagen fibers. Tendons are tough bands and attach muscles to bones. Ligaments are flexible bands and join one bone to another at joints.

Q.18 What do you know about Hyaline cartilage?
Ans. Hyaline cartilage is a strong yet flexible. It is found covering the ends of the long bones, in the nose, larynx, trachea and bronchial tubes.

Q.19 What is Elastic cartilage?
Ans. Elastic cartilage is similar in structure to hyaline cartilage. It yaline is also quite strong but has elasticity due to a network of elastic fibers in addition to collagen fibers. It is found in epiglottis, pinna etc.

Q.20 What is fibrous cartilage?
Ans. Fibrous cartilage is very tough and less flexible due to large number of thick collagen fibers present in knitted form. It is found in intervertebral dics.

Q.21 What is a Bone?
Ans. Bone is a hardest connective tissue in body. Working Bones not only move, support and protect the various parts of body but also produce red and white blood cells and store minerals.

Q.22 What are compact bones and spongy bones?
Ans. The hard outer layer of a bone is called compact bone while the interior of bone is soft and porous called spongy bone.

Q.23 What matter does bone contain?
Ans. Spongy bone contains blood vessels and bone marrow. Matrix of bones contain collagen, calcium and phosphate. Bone also contain different types of cells.

Q.24 With how many bones babies are born.
Ans. Babies are born with about 300 soft bones. Some of these bones later fuse together, so the adult skeleton has 206 hard bones.

Q.25 What are mature bone cells called?
Ans. The mature bone cells are called osteocytės.

Q.26 Who was Andreas Vesalius? What do you know about him?
Ans. Andreas Vesalius is honoured for developing modern anatomical studies. He was born in Brussels, Belgium. He made many discoveries in anatomy based on studies made by dissection of human dead bodies. His book contained the most accurate depictions of the whole skeleton and muscles of the human body.

Q.27 What are the components of human skeleton?
Ans. The 206 bones in the adult human skeleton are organized into a longitudinal axis i.e. axial
skeleton, to which appendicular skeleton is attached.

Q.28 How many bones are present in axial skeleton? Give detail.
Ans. Axial skeleton consists of the 80 bones in the head and trunk of body. It is composed of five parts:-
i. Skull contains 22 bones out of which 8 are cranial bones (enclosing the brain) and 14 are facial bones.
ii. There are 6 middle ear ossicles (3 in each ear).
iii. There is also a hyoid bone in neck.
iv. Vertebral column contains 33 bones (vertebrae).
v. The chest is made of a chest bone called sternum and 24 (12 pairs) ribs.

Q.29 How many bones are there in appendicular skeleton?
Ans. i. Appendicular skeleton is composed of 126 bones.
ii. Pectoral (shoulder) girdle is made of 4 bones.
iii. Arms have six (06) bones.
iv. Both hands have 54 bones.
v. Pelvic girdle (hips) has 2 bones.
vi. Legs have 06 bones.
vii. Both feet have 54 bones.

Q.30 Describe upper and lower jaw in mammals and vertebrates?
Ans. The upper jaw is fixed with skull and is composed of two bones. The lower jaw is mobile and articulates with the skull. In lower vertebrates, the lower jaw is made up of more than one bone while in mammals it is made of single bone.

Q.31 How mammals improve hearing?
Ans. During evolution, mammals modified the lower jaw bones and incorporated four of them into the middle ear (in the form of malleus and incus in both ears). This adaptation proved beneficial for mammals. Lower jaw with single bone is stronger and the malleus and incus also improve hearing.

Q.32 What is a joint?
Ans. A joint is the location at which two or more bones make contact. They allow movement and provide mechanical support.

Q.33 At which basis, joints can be classified?
Ans. Joints can be classified on the basis of degree of movement they allow.

Q.34 What do you know about immoveable or fixed joints?
Ans. Such joints allow no movements e.g. the joint between the skull bones.

Q.35 What do you know about slightly moveable joints?
Ans. Such joints allow slight movements e.g. joints between the vertebrae.

Q.36 What do you know about moveable joints?
Ans. They allow a variety of movements e.g. shoulder joint, hip joint, elbow joint, knee joint etc.

Q.37 What are the main types of moveable joints?
Ans. The main types of moveable joints are:
(i) Hinge joints
(ii) Ball-and-socket joints

Q.38 Define Hinge joints and give one example.
Ans. Hinge joints move back and forth like the hinge on a door and allow movements in one plane only.
Example
The knee and elbow are hinge joints.

Q.39 What are ball-and-socket joints?
Ans. Ball and socket joints allow movement in all directions.
Example:
Hip and Shoulder joints.

Q.40 What would have happened if neck joint were a ball-and-socket joint?
Ans. Then we can move freely our neck in all directions.

Q.41 What is the role of tendons and Ligaments tissues?
Ans. Role of Tendons
Tendons are tough bands and attach muscles to bones. When a muscle contracts, tendon exerts a pulling force on the attached bone, which moves as a result.
Role of Ligaments
Ligaments are strong but flexible bands and join one bone to another at joints. They prevent dislocation of bones at joints.

Q.42 Differentiate between origin and insertion of a skeletal muscle.
Ans. Origin
One end of a skeletal muscle is always attached with some immoveable bone. This end of muscle is called as origin.
Insertion
The other end of muscle which is attached with a moveable bone is called as insertion.

Q.43 What do you know about “Antagonists”?
Ans. Skeletal muscles are usually in pairs of antagonists. In an antagonistic pair, both muscles do opposite jobs.

Q.44 What is meant by antagonism?
Ans. When one muscle contracts, the other relaxes and this phenomenon is known as antagonism.

Q.45 What is meant by “Flexor” muscle and Flexion?
Ans. When a muscle contracts and bends a joint, it is known as flexor muscle and the movement is called as flexion. Biceps is an example of flexor muscle.

Q.46 What is meant by extensor muscle and extension?
Ans. When a muscle contracts and straightens the joint, it is known as extensor muscle and the movement is called extension.
Example
Triceps is an example of the extensor muscle.

Q.47 Which point of attachment is pulled when a muscle contracts?
Ans. When muscle contracts, it pulls the moveable bone (at insertion).

Q.48 Describe briefly about osteoporosis?
Ans. Osteoporosis is a disorder of skeletal system. It is a bone disease in adults, especially in old people. It is more common in old women. In osteoporosis, there is a decrease in the density of bones due to loss of calcium and phosphorus.

Q.49 What is a function of estrogen?
Ans. The function of estrogen is to deposit minerals in bones. When the reproductive cycle stops in females, not enough estrogen is secreted.

Q.50 Describe Arthritis. Write the names of its types.
Ans. Arthritis means “inflammation in joints”. It is also very common in old age and in women.
Symptoms
Pain and stiffness in joints particularly in the weight bearing joints e.g. hip and ankle joints.
Treatment
Pain killer and anti-inflammatory medicines are supposed to decrease the symptoms.
Types
i. Osteo-arthritis
ii. Rheumatoid arthritis
iii. Gout

Q.51 Differentiate between cartilage and bone? (Board, 2013)
Ans. Cartilage is a dense clear, blue white, firm connective tissues. It is found covering important body parts. e.g., nose, epiglottis, trachea etc. Bones are the hard connective tissue providing movement, support and protection to various body parts.

Q.52 What is the role of skeleton in support and movement?
Ans. Skeleton provides protection to internal organs e.g. skull protects brain and support to body mass and can move the body by muscles.

Q.53 What are biceps and triceps?
Ans: Biceps is a flexor muscle on the front of the upper arm bone while Triceps is an extensor muscle on the back of arm.

Q.54 What is chondrocyte?
Ans: The cells of cartilage are called chondrocyte.

Q.55 What are cranial bones?
Ans: The bones which enclose the brain are called cranial bones. They are eight in number.

Q.56 What is Gout?
Ans: It is characterized by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in moveable joints. It generally attacks the toe joints.

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MCQs

1.Find the ball-and-socket joint;
(a) Joint in the finger bones
(b) Joint of neck and skull bones
(c) Joint at elbow
(d) Joint at pelvic girdle and leg bones

2.All these are the parts of axial skeleton of humans except:
(a) Ribs
(b) Sternum
(c) Shoulder girdle
(d) Vertebral column

3.The disorders in which there is an accumulation of uric acid in joints:
(a) Gout
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Osteoarthritis

4.What is correct about tendons?
(a) Tendons are flexible and they join muscles with bones SJA
(b) Tendons are non-elastic and they join bones with bones
(c) Tendons are non-elastic and they join muscles with bones
(d) Tendons are flexible and they join muscles with muscles

5.How many bones make our skúll?
(a) 14
(c) 24
(b) 22
(d) 26

6.What are the main components of a bone?
(a) Marrow, spongy bone, wax
(b) Marrow, compact bone, wax
(c) Compact bone and marrow.
(d) Compact bone, spongy bone, marrow

7.What do some bones produce?
(a) mucous
(b) hormones
(c) oxygen
(d) blood cells

8.How would you define skeletal system?
(a) All the bones in body
(b) All the muscles and tendons
(c) All the body’s organs, both soft and hard tissues.
(d) All the bones in body and the tissues that connect them

9.Find the INCORRECT statement:
(a) Bone is where most blood cells are made
(b) Bone serves as a storehouse for various minerals
(c) Bone is a dry and non-living supporting structure
(d) Bone protects and supports the body and its organs

10.The purpose of rib cage is to:
(a) Protect the stomach
(b) Protect the spinal cord
(c) Protect the heart and lungs
(d) Provide an object to which the lungs can attach

11.There are types of joints.
(a) 2
(c) 4
(b) 3
(d) 5

12.The skeletal system outside the body is called;
(a) endoskeleton
(b) exoskeleton
(c) normal skeleton
(d) Exoskeleton & Endoskeleton

13.In our body skeleton works very closely with the system.
(a) Muscular
(b) Nervous
(c) Endocrine
(d) All of these

14.Babies are born with about soft bones.
(a) 206
(b) 250
(c) 300
(d) 350

15.Vesalius was born in;
(a) Brussels
(b) London
(c) Birmingham
(d) Sidney

16.body. is the longest bone in our
(a) Arm
(b) Leg
(c) Thigh
(d) Foot

17.body is the smallest bone in our
(a) Thigh
(b)Stapes
(c) Ankle
(d) Knee-cap

18.Which joints allow no movement?
(a) Moveable joints
(b) Slightly moveable joints
(c) Immoveable joints
(d) None of these

19.Muscles can only;
(a) Contract
(c) Expand
(b) Push
(d) All of above

20.Pair of skeletal muscles are called:
(a) Extensor
(b) Flexor
(c) Antagonistic
(d) None of these

21.When a muscle contracts, the point of attachment which is pulled is called
(a) Origin
(b) Insertion
(c) Origin and Insertion
(d) None

22.When the reproductive cycle stops in female, produced. hormone is less
(a) Androgen
(b) Esterogen
(c) Insulin
(d) none of these

23.In gout immoveable joints. is accumulated in
(a) Glucose
(b) urea
(c) Uric acid
(d) Ammonia

24.Inflammation of membrane at joints is called;
(a) Osteoarthrits
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Arthritis
(d) Gout

25.joint move only in one plane.
(a) Ball & socket
(b) Hinge joint
(c) Moveable joint
(d) Slightly moveable joints

26.at joints. prevents dislocation of bones
(a) Ligament
(b) Tendons
(c) Salts
(d) Joint

27.Bone can store;
(a) Urea
(b) Salts
(c) Uric acid
(d) Minerals

28.Cranial bones are;
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 22

29.Bones which enclose brain are called;
(a) Cranial bones
(b) Cervical bones.
(c) Vertebrae
(d) None of above

30.Lacuna is present in the of cartilage.
(a) Bone
(b) Matrix
(c) Collagen
(d) Cartilage

31.Disease of bones in which there is a decrease in the density of the bones due to loss of calcium and phosphorus is:
(a) Osteoporosis
(b) Osteoarthritis
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Gout

32.Which allows movement in all directions:
(a) Shoulder & Knee Joints
(b) Hip & Elbow Joints
(c) Hip & Shoulder Joints
(d) Elbow. & Knees Joints

33.The bending of arm at elbow is:
(a) Relaxation
(c) Flexion
(b) Contraction
(d) Extension

34.Vertebral Column consists of following number of bones:
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 23
(d) 33

35.Which one cannot show movement from one place to an other place?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Animals
(c) Plants
(d) Human beings

36.Place where two or more bones meet at a point is called
(a) Origin
(b) Joint
(c) Insertion
(d) Tendons

37.The muscle of the arm at elbow joint causes straightening of the arm, it is called:
(a) Extension
(b) Extensor
(c) Flexion
(d) Flexor

38.Fore limbs are the part of:
(a) Appendicular skeleton
(b) Axial skeleton
(c) Exoskeleton
(d) Exoskeleton and Endoskeleton

39.Osteoporosis is due to deficiency of
(a) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Calcium
(d) Phosphorus

40.The example of slightly moveable joint is:
(a) Joint of elbow
(b) Joint of knee
(c) Joint of shoulder
(d) Joints of vertebral column

41.Pain and stiffness in weight bearing joints are symptoms of:
(a) Arthritis
(b) Gout
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Osteoporosis

42.How many bones are present in right hand.
(a) 56
(b) 43
(c) 28
(d) 27

43.Which of the following provides main support to our body mass?
(a) Skull
(b) Body.
(c) Vertebral column
(d) Spinal cord

44.How many bones are present in middle ear?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6

45.Fatigue, low grade fever, pain and stiffness in joints are symptoms of:
(a) Arthritis
(b) Osteoarthiritis
(c) Gout
(d) Rheumatoid Arthritis

46.Blood vessels do not enter:
(a) Bone
(b) Matrix
(c) Cartilage
(d) Lacuna

47.Fibrous cartilage is present in:
(a) Pinna
(b) Nose
(c) Intervertebral discs
(d) Epiglottis

48.How many ribs are there in man?
(a) 22
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 33

49.Movement of an animal as a whole is:
(a) stimulus
(b) response
(c) locomotion
(d) movement

50.Mark the False statement about bones:
(a) Contain chondrocytes
(b) Ability to store minerals
(c) Contains blood vessels
(d) Hardest connective tissue

51.Which of the following stores minerals?
(a) Bone
(b) Cartilage
(c) Cartilage and bone
(d) Joints

52.Pelvic Girdle contains bones:
(a) 33
(b) 02
(c) 54
(d) 12

53.Which are tough bands?
(a) Flexors
(b) Ligaments
(c) Tendons
(d) Insertions

54.Deposition of uric acid in joints is due to:
(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Gout
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Rheumatoid Arthritis

55.An example of ball and socket joint is:
(a) Elbow joint
(b) Shoulder joint
(c) knee joint
(d) Finger joint

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November 8, 2024
10th Class biology Chapter 12: Coordination and Control

10th Class Chapter 12: Coordination and Control Short and Simple Question & Answer

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Q.1 Identify the two types of co-ordination in living organisms.
Ans. There are two types of coordination in organisms:
(i)Nervous coordination brought about by nervous system.
(ii) Chemical coordination brought about by endocrine system.

Q2. What are the main components of coordination? (Board 2013)
Ans. A coordinated action has five components:
(i) Stimulus
(ii) Receptor
(iii) Coordinator
(iv) Effector
(v) Response

Q3. Define reflex action and reflex arc.
Ans. Reflex action
When the involuntary response produced by the CNS is very quick, such response is called reflex action.
Reflex are
The pathway followed by the nerve impulse for producing a reflex action is called reflex arc.

Q4. Trace the path of a nerve impulse in case of a reflex action.
Ans. Stimulus Receptor Coordinator Effector Response

Q5. Describe the pupil reflex in dim and bright light. 12(053)
Ans. Pupil constricts in bright light when the circular muscles of iris contract. Similarly,
pupil dilates in dim light when the radial muscles of iris contract.

Q6. How would you associate the role of vitamin A with vision and effects on retina?
Ans. Rods contain a pigment called rhodopsin. When light falls on rhodopsin it breaks for generating a nerve impulse. In the absence of light, the break down products are again converted into rhodopsin. Body synthesizes rhodopsin from vitamin A and that is why the deficiency of vitamin A causes poor night vision.

Q77. Define the terms hormone and endocrine system.
Ans. Hormone
A hormone is a specific messenger molecule synthesized and secreted by an endocrine gland.
Endocrine system
The system which regulates the activities of growth, reproduction, maintenance of glucose concentration in blood, reabsorption of water in kidneys is called endocrine system.

Q8. What is hypothalamus?
Ans. Introduction
It lies above midbrain and just below thalamus. In humans it is roughly the size of an almond.
Functions
(i) It links the nervous system and endocrine system..
(ii) It controls the secretions of pituitary gland.
(iii) It also controls feelings such as rage, pain, pleasure and sorrow.

Q9. What is iodopsin?
Ans. Cone cells in retina of eye contains a pigment known as iodopsin. Three types of cones have specific iodopsin. Each cone helps in recognizing three primary colours.ie, red, blue and green.

Q10. Define islets of Langerhans.
Ans. Some portions of pancreas serve as ductless (endocrine) gland. This portion contains groups of endocrine cells referred to as islets of Langerhans. These islets secrete two hormones i.e. insulin and glucagon which maintain amount of glucose in the blood.

Q11. What is nerve impulse?
Ans. In nervous coordination, brain and spinal cord receive information and send messages through neurons in the form of nerve impulses. A nerve impulse is wave of electrochemical changes that travels along the length of neurons.

Q12. What is tympanum?
Ans. In the ear, auditory canal ends in tympanum (eardrum). This thin membrane separates external ear from middle ear.

Q13. What is vitreous humour?
Ans. The iris divides the cavity of eye into two chambers. The posterior chamber is between iris and retina and contains a jelly-like fluid known as vitreous humour.

Q14. Define Acromegaly.
Ans. Abnormal growth due to excessive production of growth hormone after growing age, the internal organs and body extremities alone grow large and affected persons have large hands, feet and jawbones.

Q15. Define Antidiuretic hormone.
Ans. The hormone of the posterior pituitary which promotes the reabsorption of water in renal tubules.

Q16. Define Aqueous humour.
Ans. The fluid present in the anterior chamber of the eye i.e. between the cornea and the iris.

Q17. Define Axon.
Ans. neuron. A long fibre of neuron that carries nerve impulse away from the cell body of a

Q18. Define Cell body.
Ans. The part of the nerve cell that contains nucleus and cytoplasm.

Q19. Define Cerebellum.
Ans. The part of the hindbrain which controls muscle movements.

Q20. Define Cerebral hemispheres.
Ans. The division of the cerebrum of the brain into two parts called cerebral hemispheres.

Q21. Define Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Ans. The fluid in the ventricles of the brain and in the central canal of the spinal cord is called CSF.

Q22. Define Cerebrum.
Ans. The largest part of the forebrain; controls many sensory and motor functions.

Q23. Define Cochlea.
Ans. The part of the inner ear; consists of three ducts wrapped in the form of a coiled tube, contains sound receptors.

Q24. Define Colour blindness.
Ans. Genetic disorder in which person fails to recognize the basic colours; blue, green and red.

Q25. Define Cones.
Ans. The photosensitive cells in the retina of the eye; sensitive to bright light and so distinguish different colours.

Q26. What is choroid?
Ans. The middle layer of eye is called choroid. It contains blood vessels and gives the eye a dark colour which prevents disruptive reflections within eye.

Q27. Define Cornea.
Ans. The transparent part of sclera that forms in the front of the eye through which light enters the eye.

Q28. What are Cranial nerves?
Ans. Nerves that arise from or lead to the brain.

Q29. Define dendrites.
Ans. Short and branched projections of neuron’s cell body which transmit nerve impulse towards cell body are called Dendrites.

Q30. What is Diabetes mellitus?
Ans. More than normal level of glucose in blood, a condition caused by insufficient concentration of insulin in blood, is called diabetes mellitus.

Q31. What is the cause of dwarfism?
Ans. Less than normal body growth; a condition caused when growth hormone is insufficient during the growing age.

Q32. What is Ear drum or Tympanic membrane?
Ans. Tympanic membrane; A membrane stretched across the inner end of the auditory canal of the ear is called eardrum.

Q33. What are Effectors?
Ans. The parts of the coordination system that respond when stimulated by nerve impulses or hormones.

Q34. Define Endocrine gland.
Ans. A ductless gland produces secretions which release directly into the blood stream is called endocrine gland.

Q35. What is Epilepsy?.
Ans. A nervous disorder, characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures (convulsions).

Q36. What is Epinephrine?
Ans. It is also called adrenaline or emergency hormone it is secreted by adrenal gland.

Q37. Define Estrogen.
Ans. A hormone secreted by the ovaries; promotes development of female secondary sex characteristics and regulates the reproductive cycle.

Q38. Define Eustachian tube.
Ans. The tube between middle ear and the nasal cavity that equalizes the pressure on both sides of the eardrum.

Q39. Define Exocrine gland.
Ans. A gland that discharges its secretion into a duct e.g. digestive glands, skin glands.

Q40. What is Ganglion?
Ans. The aggregation of the cell bodies of neurons is called ganglion.

Q41. Define Grey matter.
Ans. The nervous tissue containing cell bodies and non myelinated processes of the neurons.

Q42. Define Hormone.
Ans. A substance that is secreted by an endocrine gland directly into blood and that produces a specific effect on a particular tissue. E.g., vasopressin, oxytocin, thyroxin etc.

Q43. What is Hypermetropia?
Ans. The condition in which a person is not able to see nearer objects clearly; the eyeball shortens and image is formed behind the retina.

Q44. What is Hyperthyroidism?
Ans. The over-production of thyroxin results in increase of energy production, increased heart-beat, frequent sweating and shivering of hands.

Q45. What is Insulin?
Ans. The hormone produced by the Islets of Langerhans; lowers the blood glucose level is called insulin.

Q46. What is difference between sensory neurons and interneurons?
Ans. Sensory Neurons:
Conduct sensory information (nerve impulse) from receptors towards the CNS, sensory neurons have one dendrites and one axon.
Interneurons
The neurons present in the brain and spinal cord are called Interneurons. They receive information, interpret them and stimulate motor neurons. They have many dendrites and axons.

Q47. Define Iris.he life one formed by the bending of the choroid behind the one ?

Ans. A muscular ring formed by the bending of the choroid behind the cornea of the eye.

Q48. What is Medulla oblongata?
Ans. Part of the hindbrain; on the top of the spinal cord; controls breathing, heart rate, blood pressure and many reflexes.

Q49. What are Meninges?
Ans. Three layers around the brain and the spinal cord; protect them and provide nutrients and oxygen through their capillaries.

Q50. Define Mixed nerves.
Ans. The nerves containing axons of both the sensory and motor neurons are called mixed nerves. e.g. all spinal nerves are mixed in nature.

Q51. Define Motor nerves.
Ans. The nerves which contain the axons of motor neurons only are called motor nerves.

Q52. Define Myelin sheath.
Ans. The insulating sheath around the axons of some neurons is called myelin sheath.

Q53. What is Myopia.
Ans. The condition in which a person is not able to see distant objects clearly; happens due to elongation of the eyeball and image is formed in front of retina.

Q54. Define Nerve.
Ans. The union of several axons that are enveloped by a covering made of lipid.

Q55. Define Neuron.
Ans. Nerve cell or neuron the unit of the nervous system; able to conduct nerve impulses is called neuron.

Q56. What are nodes of Ranvier?
Ans. The non-myelinated points between the areas of myelin on the axons of neurons.

Q57. Define Optic disc.
Ans. It is also called blind spot. It is a point on the retina of the eye where the optic nerve enters the retina; no photosensitive cells exist at this point.

Q58. What is Oxytocin?
Ans. The hormone secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland; stimulates the contraction of uterus walls in females for child birth; necessary for ejection of milk from the breasts.

Q59. What is Paralysis?
Ans. Complete loss of function by one or more muscle groups due to damage in the nervous system is called Paralysis.

Q60. Define Parathormone.
Ans. This hormone of the parathyroid glands increases the level of calcium ions in the blood.

Q61. Define Parathyroid gland.
Ans. The endocrine glands located on the posterior sides of the thyroid gland secretes parathormone.

Q62. Define Pituitary gland.
Ans. The endocrine gland attached to the hypothalamus that controls many other endocrine glands in the body.

Q63. What are Pons?
Ans. Part of the hindbrain; present on top of the medulla; assists the medulla in controlling breathing and serves as a connection between the cerebellum and the spinal cord.

Q64. Define Progesterone.
Ans. A hormone secreted by ovaries that maintains the uterus during pregnancy is called progesterone.

Q65. Define Pupil?
Ans. The opening in the centre of the iris of the eye is called pupil.

Q66. Define Receptors?
Ans. The organs, tissues or cells which detect particular type of stimuli. e.g. eyes, ear etc.

Q67. What is Reflex arc?
Ans. The nerve pathway over which the nerve impulses travel in a reflex action.

Q68. Define Retina?
Ans. The innermost and the sensitive layer in the eye is called retina.

Q69. Define Rhodopsin.
Ans. A pigment present in the rods of the retina.

Q70. What are Rods?
Ans. The photosensitive cells present in the retina of the eye sensitive to dim light.

Q71. What are Schwann cells?
Ans. The supporting cells around neurons, form the myelin sheath.

Q72. Define Sclera.
Ans. The tough, white outer layer of the eye which protects the eye.

Q73. What are Semicircular canals?
Ans. The three canals present posterior to the vestibule in the inner ear.

Q74. What are sensory nerves?
Ans. The nerves which contain only the axons of sensory neurons:

Q75. Define Somatotrophin.
Ans. It is also called growth hormone. A hormone of the anterior lobe of pituitary gland promotes the growth of the body.

Q76. What are Spinal nerves?
Ans. The nerves which arise from the spinal cord.

Q77. Define Suspensory ligament.
Ans. The ring that attaches the lens of the eye to the ciliary muscles.

Q78.. What is Testosterone?
Ans. The male sex hormone secreted by testis; stimulates the development of male reproductive system and the male secondary sex characteristics.

Q79. Define Thalamus.
Ans. The part of the forebrain; serves as a relay centre between various parts of the brain and spinal cord.

Q80. What is Thyroid?
Ans. The endocrine gland located in front of the trachea; secretes hormones, thyroxin and calcitonin.

Q81. Define Thyroxin.
Ans. The hormone of the thyroid gland increases the breakdown of food and release of energy; also responsible for the growth of body.

Q82. What is Vasopressin?
Ans. Antidiuretic hormone; the hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland; responsible for the reabsorption of water from renal tubules of the nephron.

Q83. What is Vestibule?
Ans. Part of the inner ear, helps to maintain balance of the body.

Q84. Define Brain stem.
Ans. The medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain connects the rest of brain to spinal cord. This is called brain stem.

Q85. What is nerve-growth factor?
Ans. Unlike ordinary cells, mature neurons never divide. But a protein called nerve-growth factor promotes the regeneration of broken nerve cells. The degenerating brain cells could be repaired by using embryonic stem cells.

Q86. What do you know about deafness?
Ans. Introduction
It is a state in which hearing is not possible.
Causes
(i) The defect of ear drum, cochlea, middle ear, ossicles or auditory nerve may cause deafness.
(ii) Infection in Eustachian tube may spread to middle ear too.
(iii)Ear drum may be damaged by an infection in auditory canal.
(iv) Excessive noise, strong blows on cheek, pointed objects entering auditory canal and attack from insects may also affect hearing.

Q87. How thundering and lightning is produced?
Ans. A thunderstorm is characterized by the presence of lightning and a thunder.
(a) Lightning
The lightning is caused by an electrical charge due to the movement of water droplets or crystals carried by wind. free im
(b) Thunder
The sudden increase in pressure and temperature from lightening produces a sound of thunder.

Q88. Why the flash of lightning is followed after some seconds by a roar of thunder?
Ans. This time difference is due to the fact that sound travels slower than light.

Q89. What are the functions of hormones in animals?
Ans. Following are the functions of hormones in animals:
(i) Stepwise process of metamorphosis Cell division in invertebrates
(ii) Cell division in invertebrates
(iii) Migration in birds

Q90. Why the urine output is low in summer?
Ans. Due to increased sweating, the water level of blood is lowered. As a result, pituitary gland releases more Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) into blood which lowers the amount of urine.

Q91. What is Tetany?
Ans. It is marked by sharp flexion of the wrist and ankle joints, muscle twitching, cramps and convulsions. It is due to decreased blood calcium level.

Q92. What is BGC test?
Ans. The amount of glucose in blood is measured by BGC (Blood Glucose Concentration test). It is used to diagnose diabetes. The blood glucose concentration is maintained at the rate of 80 to 120 mg per 100 ml of blood.

Q93. Why the eyes of cat and dog shine in the night?
Ans. The reason for this is the presence of tapetum behind the eye which is a layer capable of reflecting light.

Q94. Why Owl is not able to see during day time?
Ans. The reason for this is the deficiency of cones which receive and sense the bright light. But the presence of more rods gives it greater power of vision during night. All animals that search for prey during night have this characteristic.

Q95. What do you know about lightening and thunder?
Ans. Lightening is caused by an electrical charge due to the movement of water droplets or crystals carried by the wind. The sudden increase in pressure and temperature from. lightening produces rapid expansion of the air. This expansion of air produces a sound of thunder.

Q96. Define coordination and give example.
Ans. Definition: The coordination is developed when body works as one unit in which its different organs and systems co-operates and work in harmony with each other.
Example:
When we are writing something, our hands and fingers work in collaboration with our muscles, eyes, thoughts etc. and then very intricate movements result.

Q97. Write names of three main parts of brain.
Ans. Three main parts of brain are:
a. Forebrain
b. Midbrain
c. Hindbrain

Q98. What is salutatory impulse?
Ans. In a neuron, impulses “jump’ over the areas of myelin going from node to node. Such impulses are called salutatory impulses. This increases the speed of nerve impulse.

Q99. Define coordinators. Give an example also.
Ans. Definition:
These are the organs that receive information from receptors and send messages to particular organs for proper action.
Examples:
i. In nervous co-ordination, brain and spinal cord are coordinators.
ii. In chemical coordination, various endocrine glands play the role of coordinators.

Q100. Define Reflex action with example.
Ans. Definition:
Sometimes the involuntary action produced by the CNS is very quick. Such a response is called reflex action.
Example
The most common example of reflex action is the withdrawal of hand after touching a hot object

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MCQs

1.Processes that carry nerve impulses away from the cell body are called:
(a) Axons
(b) Dendrites
(c) Synapses
(d) Myelin sheath

2.The portion of the nervous system that is involuntary in action:
(a) Somatic nervous system
(b) Dendrites
(c) Autonomic nervous system
(d) Sensory nervous system

3.Which neurons are present inside the central nervous system?
(a) Sensory neurons only
(b) Motor neurons only
(c) Sensory and motor neurons both
(d) Interneurons only

4.The part of the brain responsible for muscle movement, interpretation of the senses and the memory is the;
(a) Pons
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Cerebellum

5.Apart from hearing, what other major body function is performed by the ear?
(a) Hormones secretion
(b) Body balance
(c) Reduction in nerve pressure
(d) All of these

6.The myelin sheath is formed by which wrap around the axons of some neurons:
(a) Nodes of Ranvier
(b) Axons.
(c) Dendrites
(d) Schwann Cells
7.This is not a part of the hindbrain:
(a) Pons
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Cerebellum

8.If you look at an intact human brain, what you see the most is a large, highly convoluted outer surface.
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) pons
(d) Medulla oblongata

9.Insulin and glucagon are produced in the:
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Anterior pituitary
(c) Liver
(d) Pancreas

10.All of these are hormones except:
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Glucagon
(d) Pepsinogen

11.The elongation of eye-ball results in:
(a) Myopia
(b) Blindness
(c) Deafness
(d) None of these

12.The pathway followed by the nerve impulses for producing a reflex action is called:
(a) Reflex action
(b) Reflex arc
(c) Neuron
(d) Spinal cord

13.Ali Ibn-e-Isa’s book on study of diseases and surgery of eye is:
(a) Biology
(b) Botany
(c) Ophthalmology
(d) Zoology

14.A coordinated action has components:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

15.The organs which are specifically built to detect particular type of stimulus are called:
(a) Receptors
(b) Effectors
(c) Stimuli
(d) All of these

16.The structural and functional unit of nervous system is;
(a) Brain
(b) Hormone
(c) Neuron
(d) Effector

17.The nervous system consists of billions of neurons and;
(a) Hormones
(b) Nephrons
(c) Neuroglial cells
(d) Receptors

18.Nucleus and cytoplasm of neuron is located in;
(a) Cell body
(b) Dendrites
(c) Axons
(d) Myelin sheath

19.The sensory layer of eye is;
(a) Cornea
(c) Sclera
(b) Iris
(d) Retina

20.The sensory part of ear is;
(a) Succulus
(b) Stapes
(c) Vestibule
(d) Cochlea

21.Ibn-al-Haytham is famous for his book of:
(a) Chemistry
(b) Optics
(c) Biology
(d) Coordination

22.is unable to see during day time.
(a) Rabbit
(b) Owl
(c) Cat
(d) Human

23.Which one is the smallest bone of human body?
(a) Malleus
(b) Incus
(c) Stapes
(d) Cochlea

24.gland is pea-shaped.
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Pancreas
(c) Pituitary
(d) Adrenal

25.separates the middle ear from inner ear.
(a) Malleus
(b) Stapes
(c) Incus
(d) Eustachian tube

26.Non-Myelinated points between the myelin on an axon are:
(a) Saltatory nerves
(b) Nodes of Ranvier
(c) Neuroglial cells
(d) Schwann cells

27.Glucagon is secreted by
(a) Exocrine part of pancreas
(b) Islets of Langerhans
(c) Pituitary Gland
(d) None of these

28.are sensitive to dim light.
(a) Rods
(b) Cones
(c) Retina
(d) Cornea

29.Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of in body.
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Iodopsin
(c) Protein
(d) Fats

30.The lens found in human eye is;
(a) Biconcave
(b) Biconvex
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

31.Lobe concerned with senses of hearing and smell:
(a) Frontal
(b) Parietal
(c) Occipital
(d) Temporal

32.The largest part of the fore-brain that controls skeletal muscles, thinking, intelligence and emotions;
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Thalamus

33.This is not the part of hind brain:
(a) Pons
(b) Medulla Oblongata
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Cerebellum

34.The hormone calcitonin is secreted by:
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Pancreas
(d) Adernal gland

35.Central nervous system consists of brain and:
(a) Effectors
(b) Receptor’s
(c) Nerves
(d) Spinal cord

36.Under the influence of which hormone of pituitary gland throxine and calcitonin is produced?
(a) Thyroid stimulating hormone
(b) Glucagon
(c) Testosterone
(d) Androgens

37.Which part of human body plays role in balancing the body:
(a) Eye
(b) Ear
(c) Nose
(d) Teeth

38.Female secondary sex characters are controlled by:
(a) Estrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) Testosterone
(d) Estrogen and Progesterone

39.Functional disorder of nervous system is:
(a) Dwarfism
(b) Paralysis
(c) Epilepsy
(d) Gigantism

40.Father of Optics is:
(a) Newton
(b) Ali Ibn Isa
(c) Ibn-al-Haytham
(d) Al-Farabi

41.Rods and Cones are absent in:
(a) Optic disc
(b) Blind spot
(c) Retina
(d) Optic Disc and blind spot

42.Muscular ring formed by choroid is:
(a) Cornea
(b) Pupil
(c) Iris
(d) Sclera

43.Pairs of Cranial nerves are:
(a) 21
(b) 12
(c) 33
(d) 3

44.Pairs of Spinal nerves are:
(a) 2
(b) 33
(c) 31
(d) 12

45.A connection between cerebellum and spinal cord is:
(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) Mid brain
(c) Pons
(d) Cerebrum

46.Brain stem involves:
(a) Medulla oblongata and Pons
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Mid brain
(d) Medulla oblongata, Pons, and Mid brain

47.Which lobe permits conscious control of skeletal muscles?
(a) Frontal
(b) Occipital
(c) Parietal
(d) Temporal

48.Visual information is received and analysed by which lobe?
(a) Frontal
(b) Occipital
(c) Temporal
(d) Parietal

49.Sensation of smell is created by:
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cortex
(c) Olfactory bulbs
(d) Medulla

50.Which lobe co-ordinates movements involved in speech?
(a) Frontal
(b) Parietal
(c) Occipital
(d) Temporal

51.Layers of brain are called:
(a) Cranium
(b) Meninges
(c) Lobes
(d) Central canal

52.Cerebrospinal fluid is present in:
(a) Ventricles
(b) Central canal
(c) Ventricles and Central canal
(d) Meninges

53.Sound receptor cells are present in;
(a) Succulus
(b) Stapes
(c) Vestibule
(d) Cochlea

54.The special neuroglial cells located at regular intervals along axons are called:
(a) Dendrites
(b) Myelin sheath
(c) Schwann cells
(d) Nodes of. Ranvier

55.Which of the following contains sensory areas that received impulses from skin?
(a) Frontal Lobe
(b) Occipital Lobe
(c) Temporal Lobe
(d) Parietal Lobe

56.In reflex action, which of the following acts as co-ordinator?
(a) Brain
(b) Neurons
(c) Reflex Arc
(d) Spinal Cord

57.Progesterone is secreted by:
(a) Pancreas
(b) Adrenal glands
(c) Testes
(d) Ovaries

58.For farsightedness the image is formed:
(a) Behind the retina
(b) In front of retina
(c) On the retina
(d) On blind spot

59.The length of spinal cord is:
(a) 20 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 40 cm
(d) 50 cm

60.A pigment Iodopsin is present in:
(a) Rods
(c) Cornea
(b) Cones
(d) Sclera

61.Convex lens is used to rectify which problem?
(a) Hypermetropia
(b) Short sightedness
(c) Night blindness
(d) Myopia

62.Auditory canal ends in:
(a) Cochlea
(b) Ear drum
(c) Middle ear
(d) Eustachian tube

63.Hyperthyroidism is caused by:
(a) Overproduction of Thyroxin
(b) Under production of Thyroxin
(c) Overproduction of Insulin
(d) Overproduction of glucagon

64.Parathormone is secreted by:
(a) Parathyroid gland
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Adrenal gland
(d) Gonads

65.Which hormone prepares body to overcome emergency situation?
(a) Parathormone
(b) Vasopressin
(c) Thyroxin
(d) Adrenaline

66.The pathway which conduct impulses from CNS to effectors?
(a) Sensory pathway
(b) Motor pathway
(c) Mixed pathway
(d) Interneuron pathway

67.In unicellular organisms, co-ordination is free co- brought about by:
(a) Nerves
(b) Chemicals
(c) Brain
(d) Brain and nerves

68.Brain and Spinal cord examples of: are
(a) Stimuli
(b) Receptors
(c) Coordinators
(d) Effectors

69.Endocrine glands are:
(a) Effectors
(b) Coordinators
(c) Receptors
(d) Stimuli

70.In some parts of the body many Neurons cell bodies combine to make a group:
(a) Nerves Tissues
(b) Tissues
(c) Ganglion
(d) Muscles

71.In Auditory Canal’s wall special glands producer:
(a) Wax
(b) Blood
(c) Auditory Fluid
(d) Nerve impulse

72.If a new born baby feeds on mother’s milk, as a result of which production of mother’s milk will,
(a) Decrease
(b) Increase
(c) Stop
(d) Continue with intervals

73.Which hormone is secreted in case of emergency situation:
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Calcitonin

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Class 10 Biology Chapter-12 Introduction to Programming, this collection of notes follows the new syllabus as it is for all Punjab Boards. Other boards offer notes that differ from this set. Faisalabad Board, Gujranwala Board, Rawalpindi Board, Sargodha Board, DG Khan Board, Lahore Board, Multan Board, Sahiwal Board, AJK Board are some of the Punjab Boards.

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November 7, 2024